Nursing Elites

1. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?

• A. Type 1: No insulin production; Type 2: Insulin resistance
• B. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• C. Type 1: Autoimmune; Type 2: Lifestyle-related
• D. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Diet modification

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.

2. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Muscle stiffness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperreflexia
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels, which can lead to muscle weakness due to impaired muscle function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other medical conditions and not typically expected in hypokalemia. Muscle stiffness is more commonly associated with conditions like tetany or muscle cramps, bradycardia is more commonly associated with issues like heart block or hypothyroidism, and hyperreflexia is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injuries.

3. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?

• A. Maintain a calm manner
• B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
• C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.

4. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
• C. Fractured tibia.
• D. 95% full-thickness body burn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
• B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
• C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
• D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.

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