Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.
• B. Absent bowel sounds.
• C. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.

2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide a high-protein diet and ensure bed rest
• C. Monitor for signs of infection and provide antibiotics
• D. Provide a low-sodium diet and monitor for fluid retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient with a pressure ulcer is to clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to the wound healing process. Choice B is incorrect because while nutrition is important for wound healing, a high-protein diet alone is not a specific intervention for a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as antibiotics are only used if there is an infection present. Choice D is also incorrect as a low-sodium diet and monitoring for fluid retention are more related to conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not specifically pressure ulcer care.

3. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor sodium levels and provide insulin therapy
• D. Provide calcium supplements and monitor for hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia is managed by administering potassium supplements to correct the low potassium levels in the body. Monitoring the ECG is essential because low potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect as restricting fluid intake and providing a high-sodium diet are not appropriate for managing hypokalemia. Choice C is incorrect because hypokalemia involves low potassium levels, not sodium levels, and insulin therapy does not directly address this issue. Choice D is incorrect as calcium supplements are not indicated for hypokalemia, and monitoring for hyperkalemia is not relevant in this case.

4. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction.
• B. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
• C. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• D. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

5. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?

• A. Type 1: No insulin production; Type 2: Insulin resistance
• B. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• C. Type 1: Autoimmune; Type 2: Lifestyle-related
• D. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Diet modification

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.

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