Nursing Elites

1. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient undergoing dialysis?

• A. Monitor fluid balance and administer heparin
• B. Monitor blood pressure and prevent clot formation
• C. Administer medications and monitor blood chemistry
• D. Provide dietary education and encourage protein intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor fluid balance and administer heparin. For a patient undergoing dialysis, it is crucial to monitor fluid balance to prevent fluid overload or depletion. Administering heparin helps prevent clot formation during the dialysis process. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring blood pressure is essential, preventing clot formation is more directly related to heparin administration. Option C is incorrect because administering medications and monitoring blood chemistry are not the primary interventions for dialysis. Option D is incorrect as while dietary education and protein intake are important for overall health, they are not the key nursing interventions specifically for a patient undergoing dialysis.

2. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI)?

• A. Antibiotic Therapy
• B. Hydration
• C. Pain Management
• D. Patient Education

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing and managing a patient with a suspected UTI, the priority is to start antibiotic therapy to treat the infection. Antibiotics are crucial in eliminating the bacteria causing the UTI. While hydration is important to help flush out the bacteria, pain management can help alleviate discomfort but is not the primary treatment. Patient education is vital for prevention and management but is not the immediate intervention required for a suspected UTI.

3. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

4. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction who is concerned about fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?

• A. Instruct the client to remain in bed until the fatigue resolves
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to perform all self-care tasks for the client
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence while managing fatigue. This approach allows the client to regain confidence in their abilities and fosters independence. Option A is incorrect as prolonged bed rest can lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Option C is not promoting independence as it involves delegating all self-care tasks to others. Option D involves family assistance, which may be helpful but does not directly promote the client's independence in self-care.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

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