Nursing Elites

1. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient undergoing dialysis?

• A. Monitor fluid balance and administer heparin
• B. Monitor blood pressure and prevent clot formation
• C. Administer medications and monitor blood chemistry
• D. Provide dietary education and encourage protein intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor fluid balance and administer heparin. For a patient undergoing dialysis, it is crucial to monitor fluid balance to prevent fluid overload or depletion. Administering heparin helps prevent clot formation during the dialysis process. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring blood pressure is essential, preventing clot formation is more directly related to heparin administration. Option C is incorrect because administering medications and monitoring blood chemistry are not the primary interventions for dialysis. Option D is incorrect as while dietary education and protein intake are important for overall health, they are not the key nursing interventions specifically for a patient undergoing dialysis.

2. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?

• A. Paradoxical excitement
• B. Headache
• C. Slowing of reflexes
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

3. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?

• A. Hand hygiene
• B. Wearing personal protective equipment
• C. Sterilizing equipment
• D. Isolating infected patients

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hand hygiene is considered the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, is crucial in reducing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another. While wearing personal protective equipment, sterilizing equipment, and isolating infected patients are also important infection control measures, they are not as universally effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. Personal protective equipment can prevent contact with infectious materials, sterilizing equipment reduces the risk of contamination, and isolating infected patients helps prevent the spread of specific infections, but they are more targeted approaches compared to the broad and essential practice of hand hygiene.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Furrows in the tongue.
• D. Polyuria.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Furrows in the tongue.' Dehydration commonly presents with furrows in the tongue due to decreased oral moisture. This physical finding indicates dehydration as the tongue loses moisture and becomes dry. Choice A, 'Bradycardia,' is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, tachycardia may be present as a compensatory mechanism. Elevated blood pressure, as mentioned in choice B, is not a typical finding in dehydration; in fact, dehydration often leads to a decrease in blood pressure. Polyuria, as in choice D, is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus, rather than dehydration.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

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