Nursing Elites

1. A nurse offers pain meds to a client who is postop prior to ambulation. The nurse understands that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, offering pain medication to a postoperative client before ambulation is an example of beneficence. Beneficence is the ethical principle related to promoting the well-being of the client, which includes providing pain relief to improve the client's comfort and facilitate their recovery. Fidelity (choice A) is about honoring commitments and being faithful to agreements, not directly related to pain management. Autonomy (choice B) refers to respecting the client's right to make decisions about their care, not specifically about pain medication administration. Justice (choice C) involves fairness and equality in healthcare resource allocation, not directly applicable in this situation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports tingling and numbness in the hands. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications?

• A. Sodium bicarbonate.
• B. Calcium gluconate.
• C. Potassium chloride.
• D. Magnesium sulfate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tingling and numbness in the hands can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication following a thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia requires immediate intervention to prevent severe complications like tetany and seizures. Calcium gluconate is the drug of choice for rapidly raising serum calcium levels in hypocalcemic patients. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for treating hypocalcemia or related symptoms. Potassium chloride is used to correct potassium imbalances, not calcium. Magnesium sulfate is not the appropriate treatment for hypocalcemia; it is commonly used for conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
• B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
• C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
• D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.

4. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide a high-protein diet and ensure bed rest
• C. Monitor for signs of infection and provide antibiotics
• D. Provide a low-sodium diet and monitor for fluid retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient with a pressure ulcer is to clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to the wound healing process. Choice B is incorrect because while nutrition is important for wound healing, a high-protein diet alone is not a specific intervention for a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as antibiotics are only used if there is an infection present. Choice D is also incorrect as a low-sodium diet and monitoring for fluid retention are more related to conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not specifically pressure ulcer care.

5. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
• B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
• C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
• D. Family history and obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

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