Nursing Elites

1. A nurse offers pain meds to a client who is postop prior to ambulation. The nurse understands that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, offering pain medication to a postoperative client before ambulation is an example of beneficence. Beneficence is the ethical principle related to promoting the well-being of the client, which includes providing pain relief to improve the client's comfort and facilitate their recovery. Fidelity (choice A) is about honoring commitments and being faithful to agreements, not directly related to pain management. Autonomy (choice B) refers to respecting the client's right to make decisions about their care, not specifically about pain medication administration. Justice (choice C) involves fairness and equality in healthcare resource allocation, not directly applicable in this situation.

2. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?

• A. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
• B. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
• C. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
• D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.

3. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Easy bruising
• C. Pale conjunctiva
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pale conjunctiva is a common sign of iron deficiency anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels. This results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia and pallor. 'Increased energy' (choice A) is not typically associated with iron deficiency anemia, as fatigue and weakness are common symptoms. 'Easy bruising' (choice B) is more characteristic of platelet disorders or vitamin deficiencies rather than iron deficiency anemia. 'Weight gain' (choice D) is not a typical finding in iron deficiency anemia; in fact, weight loss is more common due to decreased appetite and overall weakness.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. The nurse notes early decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take?

• A. Continue to monitor the fetal heart rate.
• B. Stop the oxytocin infusion.
• C. Perform a vaginal examination.
• D. Initiate an amnioinfusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for early decelerations, which are caused by fetal head compression and are considered normal during labor, is to continue monitoring the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations mirror contractions and usually do not require any intervention. Stopping the oxytocin infusion (Choice B) is not necessary as early decelerations are not typically a cause for concern related to oxytocin. Performing a vaginal examination (Choice C) or initiating an amnioinfusion (Choice D) are unnecessary and not indicated specifically for early decelerations.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

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