Nursing Elites

1. What are the most common signs and symptoms of leukemia related to bone marrow involvement?

• A. petechiae, infection, fatigue
• B. headache, papilledema, irritability
• C. muscle wasting, weight loss, fatigue
• D. decreased intracranial pressure, psychosis, confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: petechiae, infection, fatigue. In leukemia, bone marrow involvement leads to a decrease in normal blood cell production, resulting in petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), increased susceptibility to infections due to decreased white blood cells, and fatigue from anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the typical signs and symptoms of leukemia with bone marrow involvement. Headache, papilledema, irritability, muscle wasting, weight loss, decreased intracranial pressure, psychosis, and confusion are not typically associated with leukemia and bone marrow involvement.

2. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who has difficulty breathing and prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?

• A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
• B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
• C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
• D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles are signs of respiratory distress in infants. These clinical manifestations can be associated with trauma, such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS), which can lead to severe head injuries and respiratory compromise. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation (Choice A) is more related to prematurity complications rather than SBS. The absence of stridor and adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) may not be specific indicators of SBS. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds (Choice C) alone may not be as concerning as the presence of retractions and use of accessory muscles in the context of a distressed infant.

3. A nurse is assessing a 10-month-old infant. What developmental milestone should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Crawling
• B. Sitting without support
• C. Standing with assistance
• D. Pulling to a stand

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulling to a stand. By 10 months of age, most infants should be able to pull themselves up to a standing position while holding onto furniture or other support. This milestone indicates good strength and coordination in the lower body. Choice A, Crawling, is typically achieved around 6-9 months of age. Choice B, Sitting without support, usually occurs around 6-8 months. Choice C, Standing with assistance, can typically be seen around 9-12 months, but pulling to a stand is a more advanced milestone expected by 10 months.

4. The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with an endocrine disorder involving the posterior pituitary gland. What care would the nurse expect to implement?

• A. Instructing the parents to report adverse reactions to the growth hormone treatment
• B. Teaching the parents how to administer desmopressin acetate
• C. Informing the parents that treatment continues during puberty
• D. Educating the parents to report signs of acute adrenal crisis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is a medication commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents on how to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's care. Choice A is incorrect because growth hormone treatment is not typically used for posterior pituitary disorders. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for this condition usually continues beyond puberty. Choice D is incorrect as acute adrenal crisis is not directly related to a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.

5. A 3-year-old child with a history of frequent respiratory infections is being evaluated for cystic fibrosis. What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate will be ordered?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sweat chloride test
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Sputum culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the sweat chloride test. This test is crucial in diagnosing cystic fibrosis as it measures the amount of chloride in sweat, which is typically elevated in individuals with cystic fibrosis. A chest X-ray (Choice A) may show characteristic findings like hyperinflation or bronchiectasis, but it is not a definitive diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis. Pulmonary function tests (Choice C) may help assess lung function but are not specific for cystic fibrosis. Sputum culture (Choice D) may be used to identify specific pathogens causing respiratory infections but is not a primary diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis.

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