HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
- A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
- B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
- C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
- D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
2. Identify the placement of the stapes footplate into the bony labyrinth.
- A. Fenestra vestibuli
- B. Fenestra cochleae
- C. Tympanic membrane
- D. Round window
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fenestra vestibuli. The stapes footplate is placed into the fenestra vestibuli of the bony labyrinth. This structure is also known as the oval window and is located at the junction of the middle ear and inner ear. Choice B, Fenestra cochleae, is incorrect as this opening is also known as the round window and is located near the base of the cochlea. Choice C, Tympanic membrane, is incorrect as it is also known as the eardrum and separates the external ear from the middle ear. Choice D, Round window, is incorrect as it is the opening covered by the secondary tympanic membrane and is important for the dissipation of sound waves in the cochlea.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with pulmonary edema who is reporting two-pillow orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. The nurse identifies rapid shallow respirations and the use of accessory muscles. Which action should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Administer the prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone) immediately
- B. Institute a daily fluid restriction while the client is in the hospital
- C. Perform a blood draw for serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels
- D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position to facilitate perfusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering amiodarone is appropriate if arrhythmias are present in the context of pulmonary edema, as it helps manage irregular heart rhythms. In this case, the client is experiencing symptoms related to respiratory distress, and amiodarone can address potential arrhythmias contributing to the condition. Options B and D are not directly related to managing symptoms of pulmonary edema and do not address the underlying cause of the client's distress. Option C, performing blood tests for cardiac enzymes, is important for assessing possible myocardial damage but does not directly address the immediate respiratory distress associated with pulmonary edema.
4. Following rectal surgery, a female client is very anxious about the pain she may experience during defecation. The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare provider to administer which type of medication?
- A. Bulk-forming agent
- B. Antianxiety agent
- C. Stool softener
- D. Stimulant cathartic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After rectal surgery, a stool softener is the most appropriate medication to help prevent pain and straining during defecation. Stool softeners work by increasing the water content of the stool, making it easier to pass without discomfort. Bulk-forming agents (Choice A) help add mass to the stool but may not address the immediate post-operative discomfort. Antianxiety agents (Choice B) would address the anxiety but not the physical discomfort. Stimulant cathartics (Choice D) are not recommended after rectal surgery as they can cause cramping and increased bowel movements, potentially exacerbating pain.
5. An elderly client with Alzheimer's disease is being admitted to a long-term care facility. The client’s spouse expresses concern about the level of care the client will receive. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices.
- B. Inform the spouse that care will be adjusted based on the client’s condition and needs.
- C. Advise the spouse to visit frequently to monitor the quality of care the client receives.
- D. Suggest that the spouse speak with other family members for reassurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices. This response not only addresses the spouse's concerns directly but also helps in building trust and confidence in the care provided. Choice B is not ideal as it may cause unnecessary worry about the fluctuating care levels. Choice C puts the responsibility on the spouse to monitor care, which may not always be feasible or appropriate. Choice D deflects the concern to other family members instead of addressing the spouse's worries directly.
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