Nursing Elites

1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

2. For a female client with major depressive disorder reporting feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to join a support group.
• B. Refer the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
• C. Assess the client's risk for suicide.
• D. Suggest the client participate in daily exercise.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's risk for suicide. When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, it indicates a high risk of self-harm or suicide. Therefore, the priority intervention should be to assess the client's safety. Encouraging the client to join a support group (choice A) may be beneficial but not the priority at this time. Referring the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) (choice B) and suggesting daily exercise (choice D) are important interventions in managing depression but assessing the risk for suicide takes precedence due to the immediate safety concern.

3. In observing a client who is pacing, agitated, and presenting aggressive gestures, with rapid speech pattern and belligerent affect, what is the immediate priority of care for the nurse?

• A. Provide safety for the client and other clients on the unit
• B. Provide the clients on the unit with a sense of comfort and safety
• C. Assist the staff in caring for the client in a controlled environment
• D. Offer the client a less stimulated area to calm down and gain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggression and agitation, the immediate priority of care for the nurse is to ensure safety for the client and others on the unit. Providing a safe environment and implementing calming measures take precedence over other interventions. Option A is the correct choice as it addresses the crucial need for safety in a potentially volatile situation. Options B, C, and D, although important, do not address the primary concern of ensuring safety for all individuals involved.

4. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

5. The LPN/LVN calls security and has physical restraints applied when a client who was admitted voluntarily becomes both physically and verbally abusive while demanding to be discharged from the hospital. Which represents the possible legal ramifications for the nurse associated with these interventions? Select one that does not apply.

• A. false imprisonment
• B. Battery
• C. Assault
• D. Slander

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the possible legal ramifications for the nurse could include battery, assault, and false imprisonment. Battery refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without consent, which could be perceived when applying physical restraints. Assault is the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, creating fear in the individual, which can result from the verbal threats and physical actions of the patient. False imprisonment occurs when a person is unlawfully restrained, which may apply if the patient was involuntarily restrained. Slander, on the other hand, is the oral defamation of character, which does not align with the actions described in the scenario, making it the choice that does not apply.

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