HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone (Risperdal). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. I need to avoid foods that are high in tyramine.
- C. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I can stop taking this medication once I feel better' indicates a need for further teaching. Antipsychotic medications, like risperidone, should be taken consistently even when symptoms improve to prevent relapse. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is unrelated to risperidone. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding alcohol is a standard precaution with many medications. Choice D is incorrect because being cautious about drowsiness and avoiding driving is a common safety measure associated with risperidone.
3. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
- B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
- C. How can I help answer your questions?
- D. What concerns do you have at this time?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Stay with the client and remain calm.
- B. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
- C. Teach the client deep-breathing exercises.
- D. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention is to stay with the client and remain calm (A). This provides immediate support and reassurance. Encouraging the client to express their feelings (B) and teaching deep-breathing exercises (C) are important but should come after ensuring the client's immediate safety and comfort. Administering medication (D) might be necessary, but the nurse should first focus on providing a calming presence to help the client feel safe and supported during the panic attack.
5. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:
- A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
- C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
- D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.
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