the wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse what exactly is schizophrenia is my husband all right which response is
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

2. A female client with depression attends a group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss coping mechanisms for anxiety is a supportive approach that empowers the client to manage their symptoms. Choice A may not address the client's self-management and coping skills. Choice B suggests using anxiety medication before riding the bus, which may not be the most appropriate solution. Choice C acknowledges the anxiety but does not actively involve the client in finding solutions, unlike Choice D which promotes client empowerment and self-efficacy.

3. What assessment is the priority focus for a client with major depression?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suicidal ideation. When dealing with a client diagnosed with major depression, assessing for suicidal ideation is of utmost importance. Individuals with major depression have an increased risk of suicide; hence, evaluating their risk for self-harm is crucial. Mood and affect, while important, come secondary to ensuring the safety of the client. Nutritional status and fluid and electrolyte balance are essential components of care but are not the priority when dealing with a client with major depression.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.

5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client's current feelings of depression?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent life events, including divorce, job loss, and relationship breakup, all contribute to a significant sense of loss, which is likely the source of his current feelings of depression. While feelings of frustration and poor self-esteem could be present, the major life events the client has experienced are more closely associated with a sense of loss. A lack of intimate relationships is not the primary factor contributing to his depression in this scenario.

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