HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
2. The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?
- A. Benzodiazepines
- B. Marijuana
- C. Methamphetamine
- D. Alcohol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.
3. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and exhibits apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities. The nurse should recognize that these symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?
- A. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
- B. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- C. Side effects of antipsychotic medication.
- D. Symptoms of depression.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities are negative symptoms of schizophrenia (A). Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions (B). While antipsychotic medication side effects can sometimes cause lethargy or sedation (C), the scenario specifically describes negative symptoms. Depression can also cause similar symptoms (D), but in the context of schizophrenia, these are recognized as negative symptoms.
4. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
- C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
- D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.
5. A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Ask the client why he started drinking again.
- B. Provide information about support groups for sobriety.
- C. Discuss the consequences of drinking on his health.
- D. Encourage the client to express his feelings about relapse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.
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