Nursing Elites

1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

2. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
• B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
• D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.

3. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?

• A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
• B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
• C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
• D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is (D) Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea. This diet selection indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) because it does not contain tyramine. Tyramine in foods can interact with MAO inhibitors like Parnate, leading to a hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening. Choices (A, B, and C) contain foods high in tyramine like cheese, pepperoni, and chocolate, which are contraindicated for clients taking MAO inhibitors.

4. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

• A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
• B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
• D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

5. A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?

• A. Inability to be mobile
• B. Isolating self from others
• C. Inability to tolerate activity
• D. Concern about body persona

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.

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