Nursing Elites

1. Under the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act, what are nurse managers required to do?

• A. Maintain an environment free from associated hazards
• B. Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals
• C. Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals
• D. Consider both mental and physical disabilities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals.' The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates nurse managers to offer reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals to ensure equal opportunities in the workplace. Choice A is incorrect because although maintaining a hazard-free environment is essential, the focus of the ADA is on accommodations for disabled individuals. Choice C is incorrect as it overly generalizes the accommodations without specifying the need for them to be 'reasonable.' Choice D is incorrect because the ADA does not specify a requirement to consider both mental and physical disabilities; instead, it emphasizes providing reasonable accommodations regardless of the disability type.

2. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• B. Ask the client if they are having pain.
• C. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.
• D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s BP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The healthcare professional should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

• A. Erythema on pressure points
• B. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+
• C. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day
• D. A bowel movement every other day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema on pressure points indicates potential skin breakdown due to prolonged immobility. It requires immediate intervention to prevent pressure ulcers. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+ is a normal finding, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day is within the normal range and promotes hydration. A bowel movement every other day is a reasonable frequency for some individuals and does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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