Nursing Elites

1. Under the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act, what are nurse managers required to do?

• A. Maintain an environment free from associated hazards
• B. Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals
• C. Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals
• D. Consider both mental and physical disabilities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals.' The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates nurse managers to offer reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals to ensure equal opportunities in the workplace. Choice A is incorrect because although maintaining a hazard-free environment is essential, the focus of the ADA is on accommodations for disabled individuals. Choice C is incorrect as it overly generalizes the accommodations without specifying the need for them to be 'reasonable.' Choice D is incorrect because the ADA does not specify a requirement to consider both mental and physical disabilities; instead, it emphasizes providing reasonable accommodations regardless of the disability type.

2. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?

• A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
• B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
• C. Warts on the affected ankle
• D. 2+ pitting edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.

4. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to

• A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.

5. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

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