the provider orders lanoxin digoxin 0125 mg po and furosemide 40 mg every day which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at
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HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to eat daily when taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon helps maintain adequate potassium levels. Spaghetti, chicken, and tomatoes are not as high in potassium and therefore not as beneficial in preventing hypokalemia related to furosemide use.

2. While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.

3. A client on a telemetry unit is being cared for by a nurse after a myocardial infarction. The client expresses, 'All this equipment is making me nervous.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the client's feelings, showing empathy and understanding. It validates the client's experience, which can help reduce anxiety and build rapport. Choice B provides information but may not address the client's emotional needs. Choice C dismisses the client's concerns and does not offer support. Choice D minimizes the client's feelings and may not effectively address their anxiety.

4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

5. A healthcare professional is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client with vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client has vision loss, using a clock pattern to describe food placement on the plate can facilitate independent eating. This method enables the client to locate different food items based on their positions, enhancing self-feeding abilities. Instructing the client on the sequence of foods to eat first (Choice A) may not address the visual impairment directly. Providing small-handle utensils (Choice B) can be helpful for clients with limited dexterity but may not specifically assist a client with vision loss. Thickening liquids (Choice C) is more relevant for clients with dysphagia, not vision loss.

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