HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. The PN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard. Which nursing problem should the PN document in the medical record?
- A. Altered thought processes
- B. Impaired social interaction
- C. Risk for self-directed violence
- D. Disturbed thought processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of heard words, is associated with disturbed thought processes, which are commonly seen in schizophrenia. Altered thought processes (Choice A) is a generic term and does not specifically address the behavior of repeating words. Impaired social interaction (Choice B) is not the primary concern when a client repeats the last words heard. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) is not directly related to the behavior of repeating words but focuses on the potential harm the client may cause to themselves.
2. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?
- A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
- B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
- C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
- D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.
3. A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the calf and foot
- B. Elevate the leg above the heart
- C. Check the pedal pulse in the affected leg
- D. Extend the leg and flex the foot
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client in active labor complaining of a leg cramp is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps stretch the muscles that are cramping, providing relief. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective for relieving the cramp. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not indicated for a leg cramp. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg (Choice C) is unrelated to addressing the leg cramp.
4. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?
- A. Obtain a blood alcohol test
- B. Inspect legs for infection or trauma
- C. Complete a mental status exam
- D. Inquire about dietary salt intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.
5. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
- B. Assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs.
- C. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.
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