the pn identifies an electrolyte imbalance exhibited by changes in mental status and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart di
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

2. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.

3. What dietary considerations must the nurse keep in mind for a patient who is an Orthodox Jew?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Orthodox Jews follow dietary laws (Kashrut) that prohibit mixing meat and dairy products in the same meal. This restriction is known as 'not mixing milk and meat.' Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because being an Orthodox Jew does not mean they can eat any food unless it is Yom Kippur, avoid meat on Ash Wednesday, or are necessarily vegetarian.

4. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.

5. The PN is reviewing care instructions with a client who has diabetic retinopathy and is experiencing glare around lights. What should the PN reinforce with the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding driving at night is recommended for clients experiencing glare around lights due to diabetic retinopathy. This can help reduce the risk of accidents and visual discomfort. Making adjustments to the personal schedule to avoid nighttime driving is a practical approach to manage the glare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because covering eyes with compresses, exerting pressure on the inner canthus, or applying an eye shield are not effective strategies for managing glare associated with diabetic retinopathy.

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