Nursing Elites

1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

2. Which of the following is the best method for confirming nasogastric tube placement?

• A. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air
• B. Checking the pH of the aspirate
• C. Observing the patient’s response during feeding
• D. Measuring the external length of the tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the pH of the aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement as it provides direct evidence of the tube's location in the stomach. When the pH is acidic (pH < 5), it indicates that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air may not always be accurate, as the sound can be misleading due to various factors. Observing the patient’s response during feeding is not a definitive method for confirming tube placement, as it can be influenced by other factors. Measuring the external length of the tube does not ensure correct placement within the GI tract and can be affected by external factors like patient anatomy.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

4. For an older postoperative client with the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling,' which desired outcome best directs the nurse's actions for the client?

• A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
• B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
• C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
• D. The nurse will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use self-affirmation statements is the most appropriate desired outcome in this scenario. By utilizing self-affirmation statements, the client can address their fears directly and build confidence, which can ultimately lead to a reduction in fear of falling. While ambulating with assistance (choice A) is important, the focus here is on addressing the fear itself. Instructing the client in the use of a walker (choice B) and placing a gait belt on the client (choice D) are interventions that may be helpful but do not directly address the client's fear of falling.

5. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• B. Assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs.
• C. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.

Similar Questions