Nursing Elites

1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Apply a cold compress to the back
• C. Assess for signs of internal bleeding
• D. Reposition the patient for comfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.

3. The nurse is assigned to administer medications in a long-term care facility. A disoriented resident has no identification band or picture. What is the best nursing action for the nurse to take prior to administering the medications to this resident?

• A. Ask a regular staff member to confirm the resident's identity
• B. Hold the medication until a family member can confirm identity
• C. Re-orient the resident to name, place, and situation
• D. Confirm the room and bed numbers with those on the medication record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a long-term care facility, when a disoriented resident lacks identification, it is crucial to confirm the resident's identity before administering medication to prevent errors. Asking a regular staff member who is familiar with the resident to confirm their identity is the best course of action. This ensures accuracy and safety in medication administration. Holding the medication until a family member can confirm the identity could delay necessary treatment. Re-orienting the resident is important for their well-being but does not address the immediate medication safety concern. Confirming room and bed numbers, though important for administration logistics, does not verify the resident's identity.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

5. A client is admitted to the postoperative surgical unit with two test tubes after a left lobectomy. The nurse observed that the chambers are set at the prescribed suction of 20 cm water pressure, and tidying occurs with respirations and bubbling. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Clamp the chest tube to see if the bubbling activity stops
• B. Notify the registered nurse of the observed bubbling
• C. Maintain system integrity to promote lung reexpansion
• D. Apply an occlusive dressing to the chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining system integrity is essential to promote lung reexpansion in postoperative patients with chest tubes. Clamping the chest tube abruptly can lead to tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition. The bubbling observed is a normal sign indicating that the system is functioning correctly, as it allows the drainage of air or fluid from the pleural space. Notifying the registered nurse may be necessary if there are significant concerns or changes observed, but the immediate action should be to ensure system integrity and lung reexpansion.

Similar Questions