the pn identifies an electrolyte imbalance exhibited by changes in mental status and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart di
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

2. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

3. A client who had a hip replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to prevent hip dislocation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.' Crossing legs at the knees or ankles can cause excessive stress on the new hip joint, leading to a risk of dislocation. Choice B is incorrect because sleeping on the side of the operated hip can also increase the risk of dislocation. Choice C is incorrect as sitting in low chairs with knees higher than hips is a recommended position to prevent hip dislocation. Choice D is incorrect because bending forward at the waist to pick up objects can strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation.

4. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.

5. The PN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard. Which nursing problem should the PN document in the medical record?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of heard words, is associated with disturbed thought processes, which are commonly seen in schizophrenia. Altered thought processes (Choice A) is a generic term and does not specifically address the behavior of repeating words. Impaired social interaction (Choice B) is not the primary concern when a client repeats the last words heard. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) is not directly related to the behavior of repeating words but focuses on the potential harm the client may cause to themselves.

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