Nursing Elites

1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

2. After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
• B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.

3. In a group therapy setting, one member is very demanding, repeatedly interrupting others and taking most of the group time. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. Will you briefly summarize your point because others need time as well?
• B. Your behavior is obnoxious and drains the group.
• C. I am so frustrated with your behavior.
• D. To ignore the behavior and allow him to vent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a group therapy setting, where each member should have the opportunity to participate, it is essential for the nurse to manage disruptive behavior assertively yet respectfully. Choice A is the best response as it addresses the issue of one member dominating the group time by asking them to summarize their point briefly, allowing others to contribute. Choice B is confrontational and may alienate the individual, hindering the therapeutic process. Choice C expresses personal frustration, which is not constructive in managing the situation. Choice D of ignoring the behavior is not effective as it allows the disruptive behavior to continue, impacting the group dynamics negatively.

4. A client post-thyroidectomy is being monitored for signs of hypocalcemia. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse be most concerned about?

• A. Tingling in the hands and around the mouth.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the hands and around the mouth. This symptom is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands were inadvertently damaged during surgery. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are not specific to hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice D) is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than hypocalcemia.

5. A client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, 'Which is the most common type of cancer in women?' The nurse replies that it is breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?

• A. Breast cancer
• B. Lung cancer
• C. Brain cancer
• D. Colon and rectal cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in women, surpassing even breast cancer. While breast cancer is more common, it is often detected early enough for effective treatment. Lung cancer, on the other hand, tends to be diagnosed at later stages, leading to higher mortality rates. Brain cancer and colon and rectal cancer are not the leading causes of cancer-related deaths in women, making them incorrect choices.

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