Nursing Elites

1. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?

• A. Record usual eating patterns
• B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
• C. Document abdominal girth
• D. Elevate both legs on pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.

2. While ambulating in the hallway following an appendectomy yesterday, a client complains of chest tightness and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Assist the client back to the room
• C. Have the client sit down in the hall
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client sit down in the hallway is the first action the nurse should implement. This is crucial to prevent further strain on the heart and to provide a safer environment for assessment and potential emergency intervention. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be appropriate later but should not precede ensuring the client's immediate safety. Assisting the client back to the room (Choice B) may not be advisable if the client is experiencing chest tightness and shortness of breath. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice D) is important but would not be the initial action to address the client's immediate symptoms.

3. A 50-year-old female is in the hospital with peripheral artery disease. In the nursing care plan, the nurse lists the following nursing diagnosis: Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral related to venous stasis. Which of the following would not be an appropriate nursing action to list in the implementation of this diagnosis?

• A. Keep the client's extremities cold
• B. Check for strength and symmetry of peripheral pulses
• C. Keep the client's legs elevated
• D. Monitor for any constrictions, such as clothes or covers that are too tight around the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Keeping the client’s extremities cold would worsen perfusion issues and is not recommended. In peripheral artery disease, maintaining warmth is crucial to promote vasodilation and improve blood flow. Checking peripheral pulses for strength and symmetry, keeping the client's legs elevated to reduce venous stasis, and monitoring for constrictions that may impair circulation are appropriate nursing actions to enhance tissue perfusion in this case. Thus, option A is incorrect as it would hinder perfusion in the affected extremities.

4. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?

• A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
• B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
• C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
• D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.

5. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.

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