Nursing Elites

1. The patient has been brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is unresponsive. The driver's license states that glasses are needed to operate a motor vehicle, but no glasses were brought in with the patient. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea.
• B. Conclude that the glasses were lost during the accident.
• C. Notify the ambulance personnel about the missing glasses.
• D. Ask the patient where the glasses are.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea. This action is crucial in assessing whether the patient wears contact lenses, especially in unresponsive patients. Observing the cornea can provide valuable information about the patient's eye health and potential use of contact lenses. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Concluding that the glasses were lost during the accident is premature without proper assessment. Notifying ambulance personnel about the missing glasses may not be the immediate priority, and asking the unresponsive patient about the glasses would not yield useful information in this situation.

2. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

3. The healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a patient in the sitting position. Which observation will indicate a normal finding?

• A. The edge of the seat is making contact with the popliteal space.
• B. Both feet are supported on the floor with ankles flexed.
• C. The body weight is solely on the buttocks.
• D. The arms hang comfortably at the sides.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a normal sitting position, both feet should be supported on the floor with the ankles comfortably flexed. This position helps in maintaining stability and proper alignment. Choice A is incorrect because the edge of the seat pressing against the popliteal space may cause discomfort and is not indicative of proper alignment. Choice C is incorrect as the body weight should be evenly distributed for proper alignment and comfort, not solely on the buttocks. Choice D is incorrect as the position of the arms alone does not indicate proper body alignment in the sitting position; proper arm positioning is important for comfort but not a key indicator of body alignment.

4. A client is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take your pulse daily before taking this medication.
• B. Take an extra dose if you miss a dose of this medication.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take your pulse daily before taking this medication.' It is essential for clients taking digoxin to monitor their pulse daily to detect bradycardia, a potential side effect. Choice B is incorrect because clients should never take an extra dose if a dose is missed; they should take the missed dose as soon as remembered unless it is close to the time for the next dose. Choice C is incorrect because digoxin is preferably taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because digoxin itself can cause low potassium levels, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

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