Nursing Elites

1. The patient has been brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is unresponsive. The driver's license states that glasses are needed to operate a motor vehicle, but no glasses were brought in with the patient. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea.
• B. Conclude that the glasses were lost during the accident.
• C. Notify the ambulance personnel about the missing glasses.
• D. Ask the patient where the glasses are.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea. This action is crucial in assessing whether the patient wears contact lenses, especially in unresponsive patients. Observing the cornea can provide valuable information about the patient's eye health and potential use of contact lenses. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Concluding that the glasses were lost during the accident is premature without proper assessment. Notifying ambulance personnel about the missing glasses may not be the immediate priority, and asking the unresponsive patient about the glasses would not yield useful information in this situation.

2. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
• B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
• C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
• D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.

3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

4. While caring for a client who is postoperative and has refused to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery, what is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for using the incentive spirometer
• B. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
• C. Document the client's refusal to participate in health restorative activities
• D. Administer a pain medication to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or barriers, the nurse can address them appropriately. Requesting a respiratory therapist (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Documenting the refusal (Choice C) is important but does not address the immediate need to assess and intervene. Administering pain medication (Choice D) without addressing the root cause of refusal is not appropriate and may mask the issue rather than resolve it.

5. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

• A. Knee picture
• B. Ankle picture
• C. Elbow picture
• D. Wrist picture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

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