Nursing Elites

1. The patient has been brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is unresponsive. The driver's license states that glasses are needed to operate a motor vehicle, but no glasses were brought in with the patient. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea.
• B. Conclude that the glasses were lost during the accident.
• C. Notify the ambulance personnel about the missing glasses.
• D. Ask the patient where the glasses are.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea. This action is crucial in assessing whether the patient wears contact lenses, especially in unresponsive patients. Observing the cornea can provide valuable information about the patient's eye health and potential use of contact lenses. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Concluding that the glasses were lost during the accident is premature without proper assessment. Notifying ambulance personnel about the missing glasses may not be the immediate priority, and asking the unresponsive patient about the glasses would not yield useful information in this situation.

2. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?

• A. 4-5 times per hour
• B. 2-3 times per hour
• C. 6-7 times per hour
• D. 8-10 times per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

3. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
• B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
• C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
• D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.

4. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

5. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?

• A. Orient the client to their room.
• B. Conduct a client care conference.
• C. Review medical prescriptions.
• D. Develop a plan of care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.

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