HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?
- A. It is contagious with frequent recurrences.
- B. It is most helpful to air-dry feet after bathing.
- C. It is treated with salicylic acid.
- D. It is caused by lice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.
2. A healthcare professional is explaining the use of written consent forms to a newly-licensed healthcare professional. The healthcare professional should ensure that a written consent form has been signed by which of the following clients?
- A. A client who has a prescription for a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- B. A client who is scheduled for a routine physical examination.
- C. A client who is undergoing a minor surgical procedure without anesthesia.
- D. A client who has been prescribed a new medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Written consent is required for procedures that carry significant risks, such as blood transfusions, to ensure the client’s informed consent and understanding of the procedure. In this case, a transfusion of packed red blood cells is an invasive procedure that carries risks, making it essential to have the client's written consent. Choices B, C, and D do not typically require written consent as routine physical examinations, minor surgical procedures without anesthesia, and new medication prescriptions do not carry the same level of risk and complexity as a blood transfusion.
3. The nurse receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check the drainage tubing for a kink
- B. Review the intake and output record
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Give the client 8 oz of water to drink
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the drainage tubing for a kink. A kink in the tubing can obstruct urine flow, potentially causing the low output. By addressing this first, the nurse can ensure that there are no physical obstructions hindering urine drainage. Reviewing the intake and output record is important, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence as it directly affects urine flow. Notifying the healthcare provider should be considered after assessing and resolving immediate issues. Giving the client water to drink may be appropriate, but addressing a kink in the tubing is the priority to ensure proper function of the urinary catheter.
4. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine."
- B. "I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago."
- C. "I flushed what I urinated at 7 a.m. and have saved all urine since."
- D. "I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.
5. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Liver damage
- B. Renal failure
- C. Gastric bleeding
- D. Heart attack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.
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