Nursing Elites

1. During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?

• A. The nurse moves each movement just to the point of resistance.
• B. The patient repeats each movement 5 times.
• C. The movement continues until the patient reports pain.
• D. The nurse completes each movement quickly and smoothly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.

3. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to

• A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
• B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
• C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
• D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

4. The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which notation should be included in the teaching materials?

• A. Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal.
• B. Finely ground meat should be avoided early to provide iron.
• C. Egg white is not recommended early to increase protein intake.
• D. Solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Introducing solid foods one at a time, starting with cereal, is recommended to monitor for any food allergies or intolerances in infants. Choice B is incorrect as finely ground meat should be introduced later due to the risk of choking and is not necessary for iron intake. Choice C is incorrect as egg white should be avoided early due to the risk of allergies. Choice D is incorrect as solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle to prevent overfeeding and promote healthy eating habits.

5. In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.

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