Nursing Elites

1. During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?

• A. The nurse moves each movement just to the point of resistance.
• B. The patient repeats each movement 5 times.
• C. The movement continues until the patient reports pain.
• D. The nurse completes each movement quickly and smoothly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.

2. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Check for jugular vein distention.
• D. Measure the client's urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

3. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Coagulation time
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client
• B. Document the client's IV intake in the medical record
• C. Request a new IV fluid prescription
• D. Check the IV tubing for obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.

5. A child weighing 20 kg has a new prescription for cefoxitin at 80 mg/kg/day administered intravenously every 6 hours. How much cefoxitin should be administered with each dose?

• A. 400 mg
• B. 200 mg
• C. 1600 mg
• D. 100 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the amount of cefoxitin to be administered with each dose, first, calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the child's weight (20 kg) by the prescribed dose (80 mg/kg/day): 80 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 1600 mg/day. Since the medication is administered every 6 hours (4 doses/day), divide the total daily dose by the number of doses: 1600 mg / 4 = 400 mg. Therefore, each dose should be 400 mg. Choice B (200 mg) is incorrect because it is half the calculated dose. Choice C (1600 mg) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration. Choice D (100 mg) is incorrect as it is a quarter of the calculated dose.

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