Nursing Elites

1. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?

• A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
• B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.

2. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?

• A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
• B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
• C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
• D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.

3. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?

• A. Before meals and snacks
• B. Before bedtime
• C. Early in the morning
• D. After meals and snacks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.

4. The wife of a client with Parkinson's disease expresses concern because her husband has lost so much weight. Which teaching is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Invite friends over regularly to share meal times
• B. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids between meals
• C. Coach the client to make an intentional effort to swallow
• D. Talk to the healthcare provider about prescribing an appetite stimulant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best teaching for the nurse to provide is to invite friends over regularly to share meal times. This can help in making meal times more enjoyable for the client with Parkinson's disease, potentially encouraging him to eat more. Encouraging clear liquids between meals (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of weight loss. Coaching the client to make an intentional effort to swallow (choice C) may not be effective if the weight loss is due to other factors related to Parkinson's disease. While prescribing an appetite stimulant (choice D) could be an option, it is usually recommended to explore non-pharmacological interventions first, making choice A the most appropriate initial teaching intervention.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

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