the nurse observes a client with a new onset of tachycardia what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1

1. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.

2. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.

5. The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively following a hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining hip abduction with pillows is crucial in preventing dislocation of the hip prosthesis postoperatively. This position helps keep the hip joint stable and reduces the risk of the prosthesis becoming displaced. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective in preventing dislocation. Keeping the client in a low Fowler's position does not provide the necessary hip support. While early ambulation is important for circulation and preventing complications, maintaining hip abduction is more specific to preventing prosthesis dislocation. Placing the client in a prone position can increase the risk of hip prosthesis dislocation due to the extreme positioning.

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