the nurse observes a client with a new onset of tachycardia what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1

1. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.

2. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.

3. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What instruction should the nurse give about the inhaler?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of these inhalers. Choice A is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are often used regularly as a maintenance treatment, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid inhalers provide long-term control of asthma symptoms, not immediate relief during an attack. Choice D is incorrect and potentially dangerous advice as increasing the dose without medical guidance can lead to adverse effects.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. What is the correct angle of insertion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection, such as heparin, is 45 degrees. This angle is appropriate as it helps to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (15 degrees) is too shallow for a subcutaneous injection and may result in the medication being deposited into the muscle. Option B (30 degrees) is also too shallow for subcutaneous injections. Option D (90 degrees) is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous injections.

5. What is the primary purpose of a chest tube in a client's care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To drain air and fluid from the pleural space. A chest tube is primarily used to remove accumulated air or fluid in the pleural space, preventing lung collapse or compromise of lung function. This intervention aims to re-expand the lung and enhance respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because preventing infection is not the primary purpose of a chest tube. Choice C is incorrect as lung expansion is a result of draining the pleural space, not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring intrathoracic pressure is not the main objective of a chest tube insertion.

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