Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider notes that a child has lost 8 pounds after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. This is most likely the result of

• A. poor appetite
• B. increased potassium intake
• C. reduction of edema
• D. restriction to bed rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, weight loss is most likely due to the reduction of edema. Edema is a common symptom of glomerulonephritis, which causes fluid retention and swelling in the body. As treatment progresses and the condition improves, the reduction of edema leads to weight loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the underlying pathophysiology of acute glomerulonephritis and its impact on weight loss.

2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Deficient fluid volume related to dehydration
• B. Excess fluid volume related to edema
• C. Deficient knowledge related to fluid intake regimen
• D. Imbalanced nutrition related to excess weight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus is deficient fluid volume related to dehydration. Diabetes insipidus causes excessive thirst and urination, leading to fluid imbalance and potential dehydration. Choice B, excess fluid volume related to edema, is not a priority as diabetes insipidus is characterized by fluid loss, not retention. Choice C, deficient knowledge related to fluid intake regimen, may be important but is not the priority when the child is at risk of dehydration. Choice D, imbalanced nutrition related to excess weight, is not directly associated with the primary concern of fluid volume imbalance in diabetes insipidus.

3. After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is completed, and the infant is returned to the pediatric unit with an IV infusion in place, what is the priority nursing action?

• A. Apply adequate restraints.
• B. Administer a mild sedative.
• C. Assess the IV site for infiltration.
• D. Attach the nasogastric tube to wall suction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing action after corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is to assess the IV site for infiltration. This is crucial as it ensures proper fluid administration and prevents complications such as phlebitis or infiltration-related tissue damage. Applying restraints (Choice A) would not be appropriate in this situation as it is not related to the immediate post-operative care of an infant with an IV infusion. Administering a mild sedative (Choice B) is not indicated as the primary concern post-surgery is monitoring the IV site and the infant's response to the surgery. Attaching the nasogastric tube to wall suction (Choice D) is not the priority at this time, as assessing the IV site takes precedence to prevent potential complications.

4. A child with sickle cell anemia develops severe chest pain, fever, a cough, and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer 100% oxygen to relieve hypoxia
• B. Administer pain medication to relieve symptoms
• C. Notify the practitioner because chest syndrome is suspected
• D. Notify the practitioner because the child may be having a stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to take first when a child with sickle cell anemia presents with severe chest pain, fever, cough, and dyspnea is to notify the practitioner because acute chest syndrome is suspected. This condition is a medical emergency requiring prompt intervention. Administering oxygen or pain medication may be necessary interventions but should not precede notifying the practitioner. Stroke is not typically associated with these symptoms in sickle cell anemia.

5. A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler’s 15-month visit, the healthcare provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse’s best response to the parent?

• A. “The dose is close enough, and it doesn’t really matter which one is given.”
• B. “From your description, the medication is not necessary. It should be avoided at this age.”
• C. “It is appropriate to use dosages based on age. Children typically have weights consistent for their age groups.”
• D. “The prescribed dose of the drug was based on weight, and this is a more accurate way of determining a therapeutic dose.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing accounts for individual variations in drug metabolism and distribution, ensuring a more precise and safer medication administration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the importance of weight-based dosing in children, potentially leading to inappropriate dosing and safety concerns.

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