Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following should the nurse focus on first?

• A. Weight reduction
• B. Stress management
• C. Physical exercise
• D. Smoking cessation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, smoking cessation. Smoking is a major and modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease. It is often the highest priority in cardiac risk reduction because stopping smoking has immediate and long-term benefits for heart health. Choices A, B, and C are also important in reducing cardiac risk factors, but smoking cessation takes precedence due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

2. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. MMR
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Human papillomavirus
• D. Pneumococcal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women to prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Option A, MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine, is not indicated during pregnancy. Option C, Human papillomavirus vaccine, is recommended for prevention of HPV infections but is not specifically indicated during pregnancy. Option D, Pneumococcal vaccine, is important for certain populations but is not the priority vaccine for a pregnant woman in this scenario.

3. The healthcare provider is screening children at a local community health clinic for infectious diseases. Which child is at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus?

• A. a newborn
• B. a 3-year-old
• C. a 7-year-old
• D. an 11-year-old

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Newborns are at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus due to potential transmission from the mother. The hepatitis B virus can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth. Children born to mothers infected with hepatitis B are at the highest risk of acquiring the infection. Choices B, C, and D are at lower risk compared to a newborn as they are less likely to have been exposed to the virus during childbirth.

4. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

5. In planning the use of resources for secondary prevention in a community clinic serving migrant families, which activity should be the priority?

• A. Skin testing for tuberculosis.
• B. Glucose monitoring for diabetes.
• C. Blood work for cardiovascular disease.
• D. Height and weight for altered nutrition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Skin testing for tuberculosis. In a community clinic serving migrant families, tuberculosis is a significant health concern due to close living conditions and potential exposure during migration. Skin testing for tuberculosis is crucial for secondary prevention as it helps in early detection and prevention of the spread of the disease within the community. Choices B, C, and D are important health screenings but may not be the priority in this specific population where tuberculosis poses a higher risk.

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