Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is being taught about the use of Coumadin (warfarin) at home. Which of these should be emphasized to the client to avoid?

• A. Large indoor gatherings
• B. Exposure to sunlight
• C. Active physical exercise
• D. Foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods rich in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) by promoting blood clotting. It is crucial for clients on this medication to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary changes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the interaction of Coumadin (warfarin) with vitamin K. Large indoor gatherings, exposure to sunlight, and active physical exercise do not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) in comparison to the interaction with foods rich in vitamin K.

2. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
• B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
• C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
• D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

3. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

5. The appropriate order of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes:

• A. Cord clamping and cutting, controlled cord traction, ergometrine administration, and inspection to ensure the placenta is intact.
• B. Intravenous oxytocin, cord clamping and cutting, and fundal massage.
• C. Intramuscular injection of oxytocin, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus, and uterine massage.
• D. Controlled cord traction, fundal massage, and oxytocin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes intramuscular injection of oxytocin to prevent postpartum hemorrhage, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus to facilitate placental delivery, and uterine massage to aid in uterine contraction and prevent excessive bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because ergometrine administration is not routinely recommended in active management. Choice B is incorrect as intravenous oxytocin is not the preferred route of administration. Choice D is incorrect as the order of steps is not accurate.

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