ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The client with diabetes mellitus has gangrene of the toes to the midfoot. Which goal should be included in this client's plan of care?
- A. Restore skin integrity.
- B. Prevent infection.
- C. Promote healing.
- D. Improve nutrition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Preventing infection is crucial in clients with gangrene to halt the spread of infection and avert further complications. Infections can exacerbate tissue damage and lead to systemic complications, making infection prevention a priority in the care plan for this client. Restoring skin integrity and promoting healing may not be achievable goals until the infection is under control. Improving nutrition is important for overall health but may not be the priority when the immediate concern is preventing infection.
2. A healthcare provider is assisting in the care of a client who is having central venous pressure (CVP) measurements taken. The healthcare provider should assist by placing the bed in which position for the reading?
- A. Flat
- B. Semi-Fowler's
- C. Trendelenburg
- D. Reverse Trendelenburg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) measurements are most accurate when the client is lying flat, as this allows for a consistent baseline. Placing the bed flat ensures that the hydrostatic pressure within the vena cava is not affected by the client's position, providing a more precise reading. Choice B (Semi-Fowler's) elevates the head of the bed at a 30-45 degree angle, which could affect the accuracy of CVP readings. Choices C (Trendelenburg) and D (Reverse Trendelenburg) involve extreme positions that would not be suitable for obtaining accurate CVP measurements.
3. While assessing a client taking propranolol, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Constipation
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate. It indicates potential cardiovascular complications and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite are common side effects of various medications but are not directly associated with propranolol's mechanism of action.
4. The healthcare provider is reinforcing instructions to a client with heart failure who is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The provider should advise the client to choose which food item?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Fresh vegetables
- C. Processed cheese
- D. Pickled vegetables
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fresh vegetables are a suitable choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium and provide essential nutrients. In contrast, canned soup, processed cheese, and pickled vegetables tend to be high in sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with heart failure and on a low-sodium diet. Fresh vegetables are also rich in fiber, vitamins, and minerals, making them a healthier option compared to the other choices provided.
5. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
- A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.
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