Nursing Elites

1. While preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization, the client expresses a preference to speak with their doctor rather than the nurse. Which response by the nurse should be therapeutic?

• A. Your doctor expects me to prepare you for this procedure.
• B. That's fine, if that's what you want. I'll call your health care provider.
• C. So you're saying that you want to talk to your health care provider?
• D. I'm concerned with the way you've dismissed me. I know what I am doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The therapeutic response by the nurse in this situation involves reflecting the client's feelings back to them, which demonstrates active listening and empathy. By restating the client's preference to talk to their doctor, the nurse acknowledges and validates the client's feelings, thereby fostering a positive therapeutic relationship and promoting open communication. Choices A and B do not acknowledge the client's preference and may come off as dismissive. Choice D is confrontational and defensive, which can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust between the nurse and the client.

2. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

3. The nurse is planning measures to decrease the incidence of chest pain for a client with angina pectoris. What intervention should the nurse do to effectively accomplish this goal?

• A. Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment.
• B. Encourage the family to visit very frequently.
• C. Encourage the client to call friends and relatives each day.
• D. Recommend that the client watch TV as a constant diversion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment. A calm and quiet environment can help reduce stress, which is beneficial in preventing the occurrence of chest pain in clients with angina. Choice B is incorrect because excessive or frequent visitations may lead to increased stress and agitation for the client. Choice C is incorrect as it may not always contribute to a calm environment and could potentially increase the client's stress levels. Choice D is inappropriate as watching TV constantly may not promote a quiet and low-stimulus environment, which is essential in managing angina pectoris.

4. A client with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving thrombolytic therapy. The nurse monitors the client for which potential complication associated with this therapy?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bleeding
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to its mechanism of action in dissolving blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of hemorrhage, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stools. Hypertension is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this therapy.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

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