HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. During a physical assessment on a toddler, what should be the first action?
- A. Perform traumatic procedures
- B. Use minimal physical contact
- C. Proceed from head to toe
- D. Explain the exam in detail
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when performing a physical assessment on a toddler is to use minimal physical contact. This approach helps the toddler become comfortable and reduces anxiety during the assessment. Traumatic procedures (Choice A) should never be the first action as they can cause distress. Proceeding from head to toe (Choice C) is a common sequence in physical assessments but does not address the initial need to establish trust and comfort. Explaining the exam in detail (Choice D) is important but should come after establishing a rapport through minimal physical contact.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin is being discharged. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to complete first?
- A. Provide the client with printed information on insulin self-administration.
- B. Obtain printed information on insulin self-administration.
- C. Make a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client.
- D. Determine whether the client can afford the insulin administration supplies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining printed information on insulin self-administration should be the nurse's first priority. This action ensures that the client has the necessary knowledge to safely self-administer insulin at home. Providing the client with printed information (Choice A) is essential to empower the client with the required knowledge before considering additional resources. Making a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client (Choice C) is important for documentation purposes but not as urgent as ensuring the client's understanding of insulin administration. Determining the client's ability to afford insulin administration supplies (Choice D) is crucial but should follow after ensuring the client is equipped with the necessary information for safe self-administration.
3. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
- B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
- C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
- D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
4. A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?
- A. Decreased subcutaneous fat
- B. Muscle atrophy
- C. Pressure injury
- D. Fecal impaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.
5. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?
- A. 0.75 mL
- B. 1 mL
- C. 0.8 mL
- D. 1.2 mL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.
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