Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?

• A. Regular physical activity
• B. Scheduled sleep patterns
• C. Social interaction with family and friends
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.

2. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 300 mg/mL
• B. 350 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 400 mg/mL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.

3. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What technique should the nurse emphasize?

• A. The importance of using a spacer
• B. How to synchronize breaths with inhaler activation
• C. Regular cleaning of the inhaler
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing COPD with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse should emphasize all of the techniques mentioned. Using a spacer can help improve drug delivery and reduce the risk of oral thrush. Synchronizing breaths with inhaler activation ensures proper medication delivery to the lungs. Regular cleaning of the inhaler prevents blockages and ensures optimal functioning. Therefore, all these techniques are important for effective COPD management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial components of proper MDI technique in COPD, so they are not individually sufficient without the others.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

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