Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?

• A. After the acute phase of the disease has passed.
• B. As soon as the ability to move is lost.
• C. Once the patient enters the rehab unit.
• D. When the patient requests it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.

2. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regime. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
• B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
• C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
• D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acupuncture has been effective for the client previously, supporting continued use.

3. During auscultation of the anterior chest wall of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, what type of breath sounds should a nurse expect to hear?

• A. Normal breath sounds
• B. Adventitious breath sounds
• C. Absent breath sounds
• D. Diminished breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During auscultation of the chest, normal breath sounds are the expected findings in a client who is newly admitted without respiratory complaints. Normal breath sounds indicate proper airflow through the airways without any abnormalities. Adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) refer to abnormal lung sounds such as crackles or wheezes, which are indicative of underlying respiratory issues. Absent breath sounds (Choice C) suggest a lack of airflow to a particular lung area, which could be due to conditions like pneumothorax. Diminished breath sounds (Choice D) indicate reduced airflow or consolidation in a specific lung region, often seen in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumonia. Therefore, in a newly admitted client without respiratory complaints, the nurse should expect to hear normal breath sounds during auscultation.

4. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Impaired balance
• B. Hemiplegia
• C. Muscle sprain
• D. Lower extremity paralysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

5. The clinician is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing?

• A. Covering the wound with a dry dressing
• B. Using hydrogen peroxide soaks
• C. Leaving the area open to dry
• D. Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing is the most effective treatment to promote healing for a Stage 2 skin ulcer. These dressings create a moist environment that supports healing and prevents further tissue damage. Option A (covering the wound with a dry dressing) can lead to drying out the wound bed, hindering healing. Option B (using hydrogen peroxide soaks) can be too harsh and may damage the surrounding healthy tissue. Option C (leaving the area open to dry) can delay healing as it does not provide the necessary moist environment for optimal wound healing.

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