HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?
- A. After the acute phase of the disease has passed.
- B. As soon as the ability to move is lost.
- C. Once the patient enters the rehab unit.
- D. When the patient requests it.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.
2. The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will have my blood tested regularly to monitor my INR levels.
- C. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
- D. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.
3. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?
- A. Schedule a support session for the client.
- B. Explain the techniques of esophageal speech.
- C. Review the use of artificial larynx with the client.
- D. Determine the client's reading ability.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.
4. A client admitted with sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse to use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
- A. Tell me how you are feeling right now.
- B. Describe the pain you are experiencing.
- C. Can you tell me more about your back pain?
- D. When did the pain start and how severe is it?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Describe the pain you are experiencing.' This question is the most effective as it prompts the client to provide detailed information about the nature of the pain, including its characteristics, intensity, and location. This detailed description can help the nurse in assessing the possible cause and severity of the pain. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective as they are either too general ('Tell me how you are feeling right now'), redundant ('Can you tell me more about your back pain?'), or focused only on timing and severity ('When did the pain start and how severe is it?').
5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing would most accurately be described by a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations. Choice A is incorrect as 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as 'appears to be sleeping' is not an accurate description of a non-responsive state. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than stated in the scenario.
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