Nursing Elites

1. The patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
• B. Discontinue the aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears
• C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
• D. Avoid taking aspirin if also taking other NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking aspirin with food is recommended to prevent gastrointestinal irritation and upset, which are common side effects of aspirin. It helps protect the stomach lining and reduce the risk of developing ulcers. This instruction is crucial in promoting medication adherence and minimizing discomfort for the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing aspirin without consulting a healthcare provider, taking it at bedtime, or avoiding it if taking other NSAIDs can have negative consequences on the patient's health and treatment plan.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

3. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a potential risk for an allergic reaction?

• A. Cefoxitin
• B. Amoxicillin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Metronidazole

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.

5. The client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) and is being educated about dietary restrictions. Which food should the client be advised to avoid or eat in consistent amounts?

• A. Bananas
• B. Spinach
• C. Oranges
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. It is important for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent levels of vitamin K intake to ensure the medication works properly. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as spinach, can counteract the effects of warfarin, leading to potential complications. Therefore, clients on warfarin are advised to either avoid or consume vitamin K-rich foods, like spinach, in consistent amounts to maintain the medication's efficacy. Bananas, oranges, and yogurt are not high in vitamin K and do not significantly impact the effectiveness of warfarin, making them safe options for clients taking this medication.

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