Nursing Elites

1. The patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
• B. Discontinue the aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears
• C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
• D. Avoid taking aspirin if also taking other NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking aspirin with food is recommended to prevent gastrointestinal irritation and upset, which are common side effects of aspirin. It helps protect the stomach lining and reduce the risk of developing ulcers. This instruction is crucial in promoting medication adherence and minimizing discomfort for the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing aspirin without consulting a healthcare provider, taking it at bedtime, or avoiding it if taking other NSAIDs can have negative consequences on the patient's health and treatment plan.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

3. When preparing to administer medication to a client, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Verify the client's identity.
• B. Check the medication expiration date.
• C. Review the client's medical history.
• D. Obtain the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verifying the client's identity is the initial and most critical step in medication administration. It is crucial to confirm that the right medication is being given to the correct patient. Checking the client's identity helps prevent medication errors and ensures patient safety. Checking the medication expiration date (choice B) is important but should come after verifying the client's identity. Reviewing the client's medical history (choice C) is valuable but not the first step in medication administration. Obtaining the client's vital signs (choice D) is essential in some situations but is usually not the first action needed before administering medication.

4. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

5. A healthcare provider is assisting in the care of a client who is having central venous pressure (CVP) measurements taken. The healthcare provider should assist by placing the bed in which position for the reading?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler's
• C. Trendelenburg
• D. Reverse Trendelenburg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) measurements are most accurate when the client is lying flat, as this allows for a consistent baseline. Placing the bed flat ensures that the hydrostatic pressure within the vena cava is not affected by the client's position, providing a more precise reading. Choice B (Semi-Fowler's) elevates the head of the bed at a 30-45 degree angle, which could affect the accuracy of CVP readings. Choices C (Trendelenburg) and D (Reverse Trendelenburg) involve extreme positions that would not be suitable for obtaining accurate CVP measurements.

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