Nursing Elites

1. What preoperative instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy?

• A. You will need to be NPO after midnight before the surgery.
• B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after the surgery.
• C. You will be able to eat and drink normally after the procedure.
• D. You can take all of your prescribed medications the morning of surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative instruction that the LPN/LVN should reinforce to a client scheduled for a carotid endarterectomy is being NPO after midnight before the surgery. This instruction is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure a safe procedure. Avoiding oral intake helps reduce the risk of complications during anesthesia induction and the surgical process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding deep breathing and coughing, resuming normal eating and drinking, and taking all prescribed medications the morning of surgery are not recommended preoperative instructions for a carotid endarterectomy.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

3. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just returned from a cardiac catheterization. The healthcare professional should prioritize which assessment?

• A. Monitoring the client's vital signs every 4 hours
• B. Assessing the puncture site for bleeding
• C. Encouraging the client to ambulate early to prevent complications
• D. Providing the client with fluids to flush out the contrast dye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the puncture site for bleeding is a critical assessment after a cardiac catheterization procedure. This is essential to detect and address any potential complications promptly, such as hemorrhage or hematoma formation. Monitoring vital signs, encouraging early ambulation, and providing fluids to flush out contrast dye are important aspects of post-cardiac catheterization care, but assessing the puncture site for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as severe bleeding that require immediate intervention.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring for a slow heart rate is crucial as it indicates potential toxicity. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly seen in other conditions, hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity, and insomnia is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity.

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