Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

2. The client will wear a Holter monitor for continuous cardiac monitoring over the next 24 hours. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?

• A. Shave the front of the client's chest
• B. Give the client a device holder to wear around the waist
• C. Teach the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours
• D. Tell the client to cover the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing the client with a device holder to wear around the waist allows them to comfortably carry the Holter monitor while engaging in normal activities throughout the 24-hour monitoring period. This approach supports the client's mobility and ensures the monitor is securely in place for accurate readings. Shaving the front of the client's chest is unnecessary and not a standard practice for Holter monitor placement. Instructing the client to rest as much as possible does not promote normal daily activities which are important for accurate monitoring. Covering the monitor in plastic wrap before bathing is not recommended as it may affect the functionality of the device.

3. The client is reinforcing teaching for peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?

• A. I will keep my legs elevated on pillows while resting.
• B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• C. I will wear tight compression stockings to improve circulation.
• D. I will apply heat to my legs to relieve pain and improve circulation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crossing the legs can further impede blood flow in clients with PAD, worsening symptoms. Avoiding leg crossing helps maintain adequate blood flow and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral artery disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the legs, wearing tight compression stockings, and applying heat can exacerbate symptoms in PAD by restricting blood flow or causing potential harm.

4. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to 'Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase sertraline levels, leading to an elevated risk of side effects. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice is crucial to prevent potential interactions that could impact the effectiveness and safety of the medication. The other options are not directly related to sertraline administration. Taking the medication in the morning may vary depending on individual preferences or the prescriber's directions. Taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications and not specific to sertraline. Monitoring for signs of weight gain is important but not a direct instruction related to taking sertraline.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

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