a nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged after angioplasty. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to reinforce is to 'Report any chest pain or discomfort to your health care provider.' This is crucial because chest pain post-angioplasty can indicate complications that need immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because returning to work immediately may not be advisable after angioplasty, as the client needs time to recover. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding all physical activity for 2 weeks may not be necessary; instead, gradual resumption of activities is usually recommended. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not just when chest pain occurs.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The nurse should reinforce with the client the importance of reporting which potential side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Gingival bleeding.' Gingival bleeding is a common side effect of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulants work by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot, which can lead to bleeding issues, including gingival bleeding. Nausea, headache, and dizziness are not typically associated with anticoagulant therapy. Since bleeding, including gingival bleeding, can be a serious side effect that requires medical attention, the client should be educated on reporting it promptly to their healthcare provider.

5. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.

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