Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

3. The client with diabetes mellitus has gangrene of the toes to the midfoot. Which goal should be included in this client's plan of care?

• A. Restore skin integrity.
• B. Prevent infection.
• C. Promote healing.
• D. Improve nutrition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preventing infection is crucial in clients with gangrene to halt the spread of infection and avert further complications. Infections can exacerbate tissue damage and lead to systemic complications, making infection prevention a priority in the care plan for this client. Restoring skin integrity and promoting healing may not be achievable goals until the infection is under control. Improving nutrition is important for overall health but may not be the priority when the immediate concern is preventing infection.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which dietary change should the nurse recommend?

• A. Increase intake of red meat
• B. Use salt substitutes liberally
• C. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day
• D. Increase intake of processed foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' This recommendation is crucial in managing hypertension because excessive sodium intake can lead to elevated blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake helps the body regulate fluid balance and lower blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing red meat intake can worsen hypertension due to its high saturated fat content. Using salt substitutes liberally can also be harmful as they often contain high amounts of potassium, which can be problematic for individuals with certain health conditions. Increasing processed foods consumption is generally discouraged in hypertension management due to their high sodium content and low nutritional value.

5. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?

• A. Continue taking your usual dose of beta-blockers
• B. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4 hours before the test
• C. Wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes
• D. Avoid any physical activity for 24 hours before the test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.

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