Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a child who has a prescription for a blood transfusion. The parents have refused the treatment due to religious beliefs. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Examine personal values about the issue.
• B. Respect the parents' decision and provide alternative treatment options.
• C. Seek a court order to proceed with the transfusion.
• D. Discuss the issue with the child.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Examining personal values about the issue is crucial for the healthcare professional to provide unbiased care while still respecting the parents' beliefs. Choice B is incorrect because respecting the parents' decision is essential, but providing alternative treatment options may not be warranted in this situation where the parents' decision is based on religious beliefs. Seeking a court order (Choice C) should only be considered as a last resort when the child's life is in immediate danger and all other options have been exhausted. Discussing the issue with the child (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the child may not fully comprehend the situation or the implications of going against the parents' beliefs.

3. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

4. During a client admission, how should the nurse conduct medication reconciliation?

• A. Compare the client’s home medications to the provider's prescriptions.
• B. Review the client’s medical history.
• C. Assess the client's current medications.
• D. Ask the client about their allergies.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During medication reconciliation, the nurse should compare the client’s home medications with the provider's prescriptions to ensure accuracy and prevent medication errors. Reviewing the client’s medical history (Choice B) is important but not the primary focus of medication reconciliation. Assessing the client's current medications (Choice C) is also vital but is not specific to the comparison between home and prescribed medications during reconciliation. Asking the client about their allergies (Choice D) is relevant for ensuring safe medication administration but is not the primary step in medication reconciliation, which involves comparing actual medications.

5. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?

• A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
• B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
• C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
• D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.

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