Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom should the healthcare provider expect to observe?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Joint pain
• C. Vision changes
• D. Skin rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by impaired neuromuscular transmission. This results in muscle weakness, particularly in skeletal muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. Joint pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis and is more commonly associated with conditions like arthritis. Vision changes (Choice C) may occur in conditions affecting the eyes, but they are not specific to myasthenia gravis. Skin rash (Choice D) is also not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (Choice A).

2. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?

• A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
• B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
• C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
• D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.

3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

4. A nurse is caring for two clients who report following the same religion. Which of the following information should the nurse consider when planning care for these clients?

• A. Members of the same religion may have varying feelings about their religion.
• B. A shared religion background does not guarantee identical beliefs.
• C. The same religious beliefs can influence individuals differently.
• D. Discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be relevant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Religious beliefs can vary widely even among individuals of the same faith. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that the impact and interpretation of religious beliefs can differ from person to person. Choice A is incorrect as individuals within the same religion can have diverse feelings and interpretations. Choice B is incorrect because a shared religious background does not necessarily mean that individuals hold the same beliefs. Choice D is not the best course of action as discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be necessary or appropriate for providing care.

5. A client is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take your pulse daily before taking this medication.
• B. Take an extra dose if you miss a dose of this medication.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take your pulse daily before taking this medication.' It is essential for clients taking digoxin to monitor their pulse daily to detect bradycardia, a potential side effect. Choice B is incorrect because clients should never take an extra dose if a dose is missed; they should take the missed dose as soon as remembered unless it is close to the time for the next dose. Choice C is incorrect because digoxin is preferably taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because digoxin itself can cause low potassium levels, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary.

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