Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assessing a 4-year-old client. Which finding suggests to the healthcare professional this child may have a genetic disorder?

• A. Inquiry reveals the child had feeding problems.
• B. The child weighs 40 lb (18.2 kg) and is 40 in (101.6 cm) in height.
• C. The child has low-set ears with lobe creases.
• D. The child can hop on one foot but cannot skip.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Low-set ears with lobe creases are often associated with genetic disorders and can indicate underlying chromosomal abnormalities. This physical characteristic is known to be a common sign in various syndromes like Down syndrome. Choices A, B, and D are not directly linked to genetic disorders. Feeding problems and specific weight/height measurements are more general indicators of growth and development, while the ability to hop on one foot but not skip is a developmental milestone assessment that does not specifically point towards a genetic disorder.

2. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:

• A. nondisjunction.
• B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
• C. genomic imprinting.
• D. autosomal dominant inheritance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division that leads to the presence of an extra chromosome 21. This additional chromosome alters the normal genetic makeup, resulting in the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is nondisjunction (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Trisomy 21 is not caused by X-linked recessive inheritance, genomic imprinting, or autosomal dominant inheritance. Understanding the specific genetic mechanism involved in Trisomy 21 is crucial for grasping the basis of this chromosomal disorder.

3. What are general guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion?

• A. Examining the child in the parent's arms
• B. Palpating the painful area of the abdomen first
• C. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen
• D. Separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is important to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach helps reduce the child's anxiety, provides comfort, and can facilitate a more accurate assessment. Palpating the painful area of the abdomen first (choice B) may cause discomfort and increase anxiety in the child. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (choice C) without considering the child's comfort and security may lead to resistance and inaccurate assessment. Separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination (choice D) can further increase anxiety and hinder the assessment process. Therefore, examining the child in the parent's arms (choice A) is the most appropriate and effective approach in this scenario.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing a presentation to a local community group about genetic disorders and the types of congenital anomalies that can occur. What would the professional include as a major congenital anomaly?

• A. Overlapping digits
• B. Polydactyly
• C. Umbilical hernia
• D. Cleft palate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate is considered a major congenital anomaly due to its significant impact on feeding, speech, and overall health. Overlapping digits (Option A) are a physical anomaly but not typically considered a major congenital anomaly. Polydactyly (Option B) refers to having extra fingers or toes, which is a congenital anomaly but not as major as a cleft palate. Umbilical hernia (Option C) involves a protrusion of abdominal contents through the umbilical ring but is not typically classified as a major congenital anomaly compared to cleft palate.

5. During an oral cavity assessment of a 6-month-old infant, the parent inquires about which teeth will erupt first. How should the healthcare provider respond?

• A. Incisors
• B. Canines
• C. Upper molars
• D. Lower molars

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incisors are the teeth that typically erupt first in infants, usually around 6 months of age. These teeth play a crucial role in biting and cutting food. Canines, upper molars, and lower molars are not the primary teeth to erupt in infants. Canines usually erupt after incisors, while molars, whether upper or lower, come in later during the teething process.

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