the nurse is administering sevelamer renagel during lunch to a client with end stage renal disease esrd the client asks the nurse to bring the medicat
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1. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.

3. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a client with hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low-protein diet is recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, can accumulate in the blood due to impaired liver function. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to worsening hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by cognitive and neurological disturbances. Therefore, by limiting protein intake, the production of ammonia is reduced, thereby helping to manage hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hepatic encephalopathy is not primarily related to hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, or electrolyte imbalance. The focus is on reducing ammonia levels to improve the condition.

4. In a 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis experiencing severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, which findings on an esophageal manometry study are consistent with her diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absent peristalsis and decreased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. The patient in this scenario has scleroderma esophagus, characterized by atrophy of esophageal smooth muscle, leading to the loss of peristalsis and LES tone. These changes contribute to severe symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and esophagitis. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure are typical findings in scleroderma esophagus, contributing to the refractory nature of the patient's symptoms despite antacid use.

5. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.

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