Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents its absorption. By taking RenaGel with meals, the binding of phosphorus helps to reduce the phosphorus load absorbed from food, thus aiding in the management of hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD.

2. The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?

• A. Exercise in a swimming pool.
• B. Splint affected joints during activity.
• C. Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily.
• D. Begin a training program of lifting weights and running.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in a swimming pool is beneficial for adolescents with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis as it reduces stress on the joints while allowing movement and strengthening. The buoyancy of water supports the body, making exercises easier and less painful, while also providing resistance to strengthen muscles. This form of exercise can help improve joint mobility and overall function without causing excessive strain on the joints. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because splinting affected joints, performing passive range of motion exercises, or beginning a training program of lifting weights and running can potentially exacerbate symptoms and cause additional stress on the joints, which is not recommended for individuals with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?

• A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
• B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
• C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
• D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV adenosine is the appropriate intervention for a client with symptomatic tachycardia to restore normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by interrupting the reentry pathways through the AV node and restoring normal sinus rhythm. It is a rapid-acting medication given as a rapid IV push followed by a saline flush. The dose is typically administered in a healthcare setting where cardiac monitoring is available due to its potential to cause transient asystole.

4. In a client with liver cirrhosis experiencing confusion and disorientation, what condition is most likely causing these symptoms?

• A. Hepatic encephalopathy
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Electrolyte imbalance
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is the most likely condition causing confusion and disorientation in a client with liver cirrhosis. This condition is a common complication of liver cirrhosis and is characterized by cognitive impairment due to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. The build-up of ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms such as confusion, disorientation, and altered consciousness. Hypoglycemia (choice B) may present with confusion but is less likely in a client with liver cirrhosis without a history of diabetes or insulin use. Electrolyte imbalance (choice C) and dehydration (choice D) can contribute to confusion but are not the primary causes in a client with liver cirrhosis experiencing these symptoms.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. Which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L.
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening condition that needs prompt correction to prevent serious complications. High serum glucose levels (choice A) are a concern in diabetes but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to severe hypokalemia. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum bicarbonate levels (choice D) are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention.

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