ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-dialysis assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.
- B. Blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg.
- C. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute.
- D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported to the healthcare provider before hemodialysis. Hypertension can have a significant impact on the effectiveness and safety of the dialysis treatment. Controlling blood pressure before the procedure is crucial to prevent complications during the dialysis session.
2. A client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the client to describe what sign or symptom?
- A. Burning pain on swallowing
- B. Regurgitation of undigested food
- C. Symptoms mimicking a myocardial infarction
- D. Chronic parotid abscesses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Regurgitation of undigested food is a typical symptom of esophageal diverticulum. This condition forms a pouch in the esophagus that can trap food, leading to regurgitation of undigested food. The other options are not typically associated with esophageal diverticulum.
3. A client with portal hypertension who has developed ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What pre-procedure nursing intervention is essential?
- A. Encourage the client to empty the bladder
- B. Administer a laxative to clear the bowels
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Emptying the bladder before a paracentesis is essential to prevent bladder injury during the procedure. A full bladder may be in the path of the needle insertion, increasing the risk of bladder puncture. Encouraging the client to empty the bladder ensures their safety and reduces the likelihood of complications.
4. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.
5. A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?
- A. Have the client's healthcare provider write a letter to the HMO explaining the need for the transplant.
- B. Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage.
- C. Encourage the client to contact a lawyer to file a lawsuit against the HMO if necessary.
- D. Have the social worker contact the state board of insurance to register a complaint against the HMO.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to help the client directly contact the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This approach addresses the client's immediate concerns and clarifies the situation, enabling the client to understand the coverage and potential outcomes regarding the bone marrow transplant. Choice A is not the best option as having the healthcare provider write a letter may not provide immediate clarification on coverage. Choice C is inappropriate as legal action should be considered as a last resort, and choice D involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this initial stage of addressing the client's concern.
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