Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my nitroglycerin tablets in the original glass bottle.
• B. I will sit or lie down when I take a nitroglycerin tablet.
• C. I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain persists, up to a total of 3 tablets.
• D. I can swallow the nitroglycerin tablet with a glass of water if it does not dissolve quickly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?

• A. Apical pulse
• B. Serum calcium level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the healthcare provider should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are used to lower blood pressure, making it essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure it is within the appropriate range for administration. Checking the apical pulse (choice A) is not the priority before administering a calcium channel blocker, as the focus should be on blood pressure. Serum calcium level (choice B) is not directly related to the administration of calcium channel blockers for hypertension. Respiratory rate (choice D) is not the primary parameter to check before administering a calcium channel blocker in this scenario.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should reinforce which dietary instruction?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Increase intake of dairy products.
• C. Limit intake of foods high in fiber.
• D. Increase protein intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to keep the medication's effectiveness stable. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to avoid these foods to ensure the therapeutic effects of warfarin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products, limiting fiber intake, or increasing protein intake do not directly impact the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and are not necessary dietary modifications for clients on this medication.

5. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Administer the injection into the abdomen.
• B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
• C. Expect mild bruising at the injection site.
• D. Avoid alternating injection sites between the arms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering enoxaparin into the abdomen is recommended to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided as it can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. Mild bruising at the injection site is common with enoxaparin and should be expected. Alternating injection sites, especially between arms, is not suitable for enoxaparin administration. Consistent administration into the abdomen is preferred for consistent absorption of the medication.

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