the lpnlvn is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction mi and is assisting the client in completing the diet menu which beverage
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) and is assisting the client in completing the diet menu. Which beverage does the nurse instruct the client to select from the menu?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lemonade is the correct choice as it is caffeine-free, unlike tea, cola, and coffee, which contain caffeine that can potentially affect the client's heart rhythm. Caffeine can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which may not be advisable for a client with a recent MI. Tea, cola, and coffee should be avoided due to their caffeine content, which can have stimulant effects on the heart and may not be beneficial for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction.

2. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients taking warfarin need to be cautious with their vitamin K intake because vitamin K can counteract the effects of the medication. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the therapeutic effects of warfarin. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy product intake is not specifically related to warfarin therapy. Choice C is incorrect as high-fiber foods do not interfere with warfarin therapy. Choice D is incorrect as protein-rich foods are not contraindicated with warfarin therapy.

3. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

4. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

5. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.

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