ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare professional monitor most closely?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, making it crucial to monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can result from furosemide use, potentially leading to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications in clients receiving furosemide. Monitoring serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels is not the priority when administering furosemide.
2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day
- B. Avoid green leafy vegetables in your diet
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods
- D. Stop the medication if you notice any bruising
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking warfarin at the same time each day is crucial to maintain consistent blood levels and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Consistent timing helps in monitoring and adjusting the dosage as needed to keep the international normalized ratio (INR) within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding green leafy vegetables is a misconception; while they are high in vitamin K which antagonizes warfarin, they should not be avoided but consumed in moderation. Increasing vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Stopping the medication due to bruising can be dangerous as it may indicate a clotting problem that the medication is intended to prevent.
3. The client admitted to the hospital with pulmonary edema is preparing for discharge. The client should be reminded of the importance of complying with which measure to prevent a recurrence?
- A. Weigh oneself every morning before breakfast.
- B. Sleep with the head elevated on multiple pillows.
- C. Adjust diuretic dose without healthcare provider guidance.
- D. Take additional digoxin (Lanoxin) as a preventive measure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring weight daily, especially in the morning before breakfast, is crucial in detecting fluid retention early and preventing pulmonary edema. Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent complications. Choice A is the correct answer because daily weight monitoring is a key component in managing heart failure and preventing pulmonary edema recurrence. Choices B and D are not directly related to preventing fluid retention or pulmonary edema recurrence. Choice C is unsafe as adjusting diuretic doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to electrolyte imbalances and worsening of the condition.
4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the medication orders for a client with angina pectoris. Which medication is typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Nitroglycerin
- C. Atenolol
- D. Simvastatin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is the medication typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow, and reducing the heart's workload, hence relieving angina symptoms. Aspirin is often used to prevent blood clots, not specifically to prevent angina attacks. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to manage high blood pressure and chest pain but is not typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. Simvastatin is a statin medication primarily used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for preventing angina attacks.
5. The client with diabetes mellitus has gangrene of the toes to the midfoot. Which goal should be included in this client's plan of care?
- A. Restore skin integrity.
- B. Prevent infection.
- C. Promote healing.
- D. Improve nutrition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Preventing infection is crucial in clients with gangrene to halt the spread of infection and avert further complications. Infections can exacerbate tissue damage and lead to systemic complications, making infection prevention a priority in the care plan for this client. Restoring skin integrity and promoting healing may not be achievable goals until the infection is under control. Improving nutrition is important for overall health but may not be the priority when the immediate concern is preventing infection.
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