the nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis dvt who is receiving anticoagulant therapy which laboratory test should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

4. The client with diabetes mellitus has gangrene of the toes to the midfoot. Which goal should be included in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preventing infection is crucial in clients with gangrene to halt the spread of infection and avert further complications. Infections can exacerbate tissue damage and lead to systemic complications, making infection prevention a priority in the care plan for this client. Restoring skin integrity and promoting healing may not be achievable goals until the infection is under control. Improving nutrition is important for overall health but may not be the priority when the immediate concern is preventing infection.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

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