Nursing Elites

1. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

3. A hypertensive client who has been taking metoprolol (Lopressor) has been prescribed to decrease the dose of the medication. The client asks the nurse why this must be done over a period of 1 to 2 weeks. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that abrupt withdrawal could affect the client in which way?

• A. Result in hypoglycemia
• B. Give the client insomnia
• C. Precipitate rebound hypertension
• D. Cause enhanced side effects of other prescribed medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to rebound hypertension, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Gradually tapering the dose helps the body adjust and reduces the risk of this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stopping metoprolol suddenly is not known to result in hypoglycemia, insomnia, or enhanced side effects of other medications.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. The healthcare provider has reinforced dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the dietary instructions?

• A. I should substitute eggs and milk for meat.
• B. I will eliminate all cholesterol and fat from my diet.
• C. I should routinely use polyunsaturated oils in my diet.
• D. I need to consider becoming a strict vegetarian.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using polyunsaturated oils, such as vegetable oils, can help manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. This dietary change is beneficial for individuals with coronary artery disease as it promotes heart health by improving cholesterol profiles. Substituting eggs and milk for meat (Choice A) may not address the overall dietary needs for managing the condition. Completely eliminating all cholesterol and fat from the diet (Choice B) is not necessary as the body needs some healthy fats. Considering becoming a strict vegetarian (Choice D) is a personal choice and may not necessarily be required to manage coronary artery disease.

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