ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Serum electrolytes
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
2. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.
3. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any signs of slowing down, as it can indicate toxicity and potentially lead to serious complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications, hyperglycemia can be seen in conditions like diabetes or certain medications, and insomnia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.
4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps relax blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing the workload of the heart. Taking it at the onset of chest pain helps alleviate angina symptoms quickly and effectively. Storing the medication in a cool, dark place (Choice A) is not a critical instruction for this medication. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice B) or on an empty stomach (Choice C) is not relevant to the administration of nitroglycerin for angina relief.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Dry cough
- C. Tremors
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Dizziness is a sign of hypotension, a potential adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. Hypotension is a serious side effect that can lead to complications such as falls and injuries. Reporting dizziness promptly is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with enalapril use and are less concerning compared to the potential implications of hypotension indicated by dizziness.
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