Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
• B. Take the medication as directed by the healthcare provider.
• C. Take the medication 30 minutes before meals.
• D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain is crucial for immediate relief of angina symptoms. Nitroglycerin is a fast-acting medication that helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Therefore, prompt administration at the onset of chest pain is essential to alleviate anginal episodes effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because storing the medication properly, taking it as directed, or before meals are not specific instructions for managing acute anginal episodes, which require immediate action for symptom relief.

3. The client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause disturbances in the heart's electrical conduction system, leading to a slower heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for signs of bradycardia, which could indicate digoxin toxicity. Hypertension (Choice A), hyperglycemia (Choice C), and insomnia (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for this question.

4. The healthcare provider is reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who has been prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The healthcare provider should advise the client to choose which food item?

• A. Whole milk
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Fried chicken
• D. Bacon and eggs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet. Oatmeal is a heart-healthy option that is low in cholesterol and saturated fats. Fresh fruits are also a good source of essential nutrients and fiber. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Whole milk, fried chicken, bacon, and eggs are high in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental to individuals with coronary artery disease.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the provider include?

• A. Expect muscle pain.
• B. Monitor your weight daily.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.

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