Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign should the nurse monitor for that could indicate digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be closely monitored. Digoxin toxicity can lead to various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a significant indicator. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage digoxin toxicity promptly. Tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Tachycardia is more commonly seen with inadequate treatment of heart failure, hypertension is a possible but less common effect, and hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.

4. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

5. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.
• B. Apply 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Call for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) to be performed.
• D. Wait an additional 5 minutes, then give a second nitroglycerin tablet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with angina pectoris continues to experience chest pain despite initial nitroglycerin administration and stable blood pressure, the appropriate next step is to administer another nitroglycerin tablet. This helps to further dilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and relieving chest pain. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary if the client displays signs of respiratory distress or hypoxemia, but in this case, the priority is addressing the unresolved chest pain. Calling for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice C) is important to assess for any changes in the client's cardiac status, but administering another nitroglycerin tablet takes precedence in managing the ongoing chest pain. Waiting an additional 5 minutes before giving a second nitroglycerin tablet (Choice D) may delay symptom relief and potentially worsen the client's condition if the chest pain persists.

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