Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed phenytoin is to avoid consuming dairy products. Dairy products can reduce the absorption of phenytoin. Taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) is generally a good practice for oral medications but is not specifically required for phenytoin. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice C) can lead to gastrointestinal upset, so it is not recommended for phenytoin. Expecting a metallic taste in the mouth (Choice D) is a possible side effect of phenytoin but is not a crucial instruction for the client to follow.

3. A client has a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lower heart rate and blood pressure, so it is essential to monitor heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically required with propranolol. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products with propranolol.

4. A client has a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitor your blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed metoprolol, it is important to monitor blood pressure daily because the medication can cause hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. Regular monitoring allows for the early detection of any potential issues and adjustment of treatment if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking metoprolol with food is not necessary, increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to metoprolol therapy, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain other medications that interact with grapefruit.

5. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Apply a nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

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