HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Laceration
- B. Abrasion
- C. Contusion
- D. Ulceration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.
2. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Clarify the client’s consent through the use of gestures and simple terms
- B. Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
- C. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion
- D. Have the client sign the consent form and the nurse witness the signature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.
3. A 70-year-old client is admitted to the hospital after 24 hours of acute diarrhea. To determine fluid status, which initial data is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Usual and current weight
- B. Color and amount of urine
- C. Number and frequency of stools
- D. Intake and output 24 hours prior to admission
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Usual and current weight. Weight changes are the most direct indicator of fluid status in a patient with acute diarrhea. Monitoring weight loss or gain can provide crucial information about fluid balance. Option B, color and amount of urine, though important for assessing renal function, is not as direct an indicator of fluid status as weight. Option C, number and frequency of stools, is relevant for assessing the severity of diarrhea but does not provide direct information on fluid status. Option D, intake and output 24 hours prior to admission, does not reflect the current fluid status and may not be accurate in a rapidly changing condition like acute diarrhea.
4. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
- B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
- C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
- D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.
5. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased white blood cell count
- B. Pruritus and muscle aches
- C. Elevated liver function tests
- D. Vomiting and diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated liver function tests. When administering antivirals, especially orally, monitoring liver function tests is crucial as it may indicate liver toxicity. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choice A, decreased white blood cell count, may be expected with certain antivirals but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. Pruritus and muscle aches (choice B) are common side effects of antivirals and do not require immediate reporting. Vomiting and diarrhea (choice D) are also common side effects that may not be as concerning as elevated liver function tests.
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