Nursing Elites

1. Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Laceration
• B. Abrasion
• C. Contusion
• D. Ulceration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.

2. An adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit because he experienced a sudden onset of sharp chest pain and shortness of breath earlier today. Following an emergent pulmonary angiogram, the client is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor signs of increased bleeding
• B. Instruct on the use of incentive spirometry
• C. Observe for confusion and restlessness
• D. Administer intravenous opioids for severe pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism, the most critical intervention is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding. Pulmonary embolism treatment often involves anticoagulation therapy, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding is essential to prevent complications. Instructing on the use of incentive spirometry can be beneficial for preventing pulmonary complications but is not as urgent as monitoring for bleeding. Observing for confusion and restlessness may indicate hypoxia but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario. Administering intravenous opioids for severe pain might be necessary but is not the priority compared to monitoring for bleeding, which is directly related to the treatment for pulmonary embolism.

3. A client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client’s current health status?

• A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
• B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
• C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left-side paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' This nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip, which is caused by altered circulation and pressure due to the client's left-side paralysis. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk for impaired tissue integrity rather than the current issue of impaired skin integrity. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it only addresses the left-side paralysis and not the pressure ulcer or altered circulation.

4. An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client he is required by law to inform his sexual partners of his HIV status
• B. Counsel the client about the importance of notifying his sexual partner
• C. Inform the wife of her health risk related to her husband's HIV results
• D. Report the client's status as a sexually transmitted case to the health department

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should counsel the client on the importance of notifying partners about HIV status while respecting confidentiality. Mandatory partner notification laws vary by jurisdiction, so option A cannot be universally applied. Breaching patient confidentiality, as suggested in option C, is unethical. Reporting the client's status to the health department without consent, as in option D, is not appropriate as HIV status is confidential information and is not automatically reported as a sexually transmitted case.

5. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Sedimentation rate
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Anti–CCP antibodies
• D. Activated Clotting Time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

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