Nursing Elites

1. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.

2. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

• A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
• B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
• C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
• D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

3. A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?

• A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
• B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
• C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
• D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.

4. Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?

• A. A 16-year-old dark-skinned female who tans in tanning beds once a week.
• B. A 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker
• C. A 25-year-old dark-skinned male whose mother had skin cancer.
• D. A 70-year-old fair-skinned female who works as a secretary.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.

5. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1,000 mL of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of which related problem?

• A. Respiratory acidosis.
• B. Metabolic alkalosis.
• C. Hypoglycemia.
• D. Hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions can lead to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. This can result in an increase in blood pH levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, not related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is an elevated potassium level in the blood and is not typically associated with the loss of gastric secretions.

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