HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. In conducting the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long-term Parkinson’s disease, which question by the nurse provides the best information about disease progression?
- A. Have you experienced any stiffness in your neck or shoulder?
- B. Do you notice any jerky-type movements of your arms?
- C. Have you ever been frozen to a spot and unable to move?
- D. Do you have any problems with your hands shaking?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about being 'frozen to a spot and unable to move' is the most indicative of disease progression in Parkinson’s disease. Freezing episodes are a common symptom in advanced stages, indicating a more severe progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and D focus on common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease but do not specifically address the aspect of disease progression related to freezing episodes.
2. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client’s B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client’s oxygen saturation before taking further action
- B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
- D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.
3. To reduce the risk of symptoms exacerbation for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS), which instructions should the nurse include in the client’s discharge plan? (Select all that apply).
- A. Practice relaxation exercises
- B. Limit fluids to avoid bladder distention
- C. Space activities to allow for rest periods
- D. Avoid persons with infections
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge plan for a client with MS to reduce symptom exacerbation is practicing relaxation exercises. Relaxation exercises can help manage MS symptoms by reducing stress. Limiting fluids to avoid bladder distention is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential for overall health and helps prevent complications like urinary tract infections. While spacing activities to allow for rest periods can be beneficial for general well-being, it is not directly related to symptom exacerbation in MS. Avoiding persons with infections is important to prevent infections, but it is not specifically targeted at reducing MS symptom exacerbation.
4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.
5. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
- B. Weight the client every morning
- C. Maintain accurate intake and output
- D. Administer prescribed diuretic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.
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