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HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. In conducting the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long-term Parkinson’s disease, which question by the nurse provides the best information about disease progression?
- A. Have you experienced any stiffness in your neck or shoulder?
- B. Do you notice any jerky-type movements of your arms?
- C. Have you ever been frozen to a spot and unable to move?
- D. Do you have any problems with your hands shaking?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about being 'frozen to a spot and unable to move' is the most indicative of disease progression in Parkinson’s disease. Freezing episodes are a common symptom in advanced stages, indicating a more severe progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and D focus on common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease but do not specifically address the aspect of disease progression related to freezing episodes.
2. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
- A. Encourage the client's family to visit more often
- B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker
- C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
- D. Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.
3. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Observe the PICC line site for inflammation.
- B. Encourage increasing fluid intake.
- C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
- D. Assess skin turgor for dehydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the PICC line site for inflammation. When a client with a PICC line develops a fever, it could indicate an infection related to the catheter. Assessing the PICC line site for signs of inflammation, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage, is crucial in identifying a potential infection early. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to assessing a PICC line for infection. Choice C is not the most appropriate assessment in this situation as monitoring blood pressure may not directly help in identifying the cause of the fever. Choice D is unrelated to the assessment of a fever in a client with a PICC line.
4. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?
- A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
- B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
- C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
- D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.
5. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
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