Nursing Elites

1. In conducting the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long-term Parkinson’s disease, which question by the nurse provides the best information about disease progression?

• A. Have you experienced any stiffness in your neck or shoulder?
• B. Do you notice any jerky-type movements of your arms?
• C. Have you ever been frozen to a spot and unable to move?
• D. Do you have any problems with your hands shaking?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about being 'frozen to a spot and unable to move' is the most indicative of disease progression in Parkinson’s disease. Freezing episodes are a common symptom in advanced stages, indicating a more severe progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and D focus on common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease but do not specifically address the aspect of disease progression related to freezing episodes.

2. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?

• A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
• B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
• C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
• D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.

3. A client with a history of dementia has become increasingly confused at night and is picking at an abdominal surgical dressing and the tape securing the intravenous (IV) line. The abdominal dressing is no longer occlusive, and the IV insertion site is pink. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Replace the IV site with a smaller gauge.
• B. Redress the abdominal incision.
• C. Leave the lights on in the room at night.
• D. Apply soft bilateral wrist restraints.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is becoming increasingly confused at night and interfering with dressings and IV lines is to leave the lights on in the room at night. This intervention can help reduce confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because changing the IV site gauge is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is not necessary unless there are signs of infection or other complications at the abdominal incision site, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Choice D should be avoided as using restraints should be a last resort and is not indicated in this case.

4. A client is admitted with acute low back pain. What action should the nurse implement to promote comfort?

• A. Ambulate with a walker for upper body support
• B. Perform abdominal curls to stretch the back muscles
• C. Position in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed
• D. Encourage straight leg raises while lying supine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed is the most appropriate action to promote comfort in a client with acute low back pain. This position helps alleviate low back pain by reducing the pressure on the spine and supporting its natural curvature. Ambulating with a walker could strain the back, performing abdominal curls may exacerbate the pain, and straight leg raises while lying supine could cause further discomfort. Therefore, only positioning the client in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed is the correct choice for promoting comfort in this scenario.

5. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

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