HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. In conducting the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long-term Parkinson’s disease, which question by the nurse provides the best information about disease progression?
- A. Have you experienced any stiffness in your neck or shoulder?
- B. Do you notice any jerky-type movements of your arms?
- C. Have you ever been frozen to a spot and unable to move?
- D. Do you have any problems with your hands shaking?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about being 'frozen to a spot and unable to move' is the most indicative of disease progression in Parkinson’s disease. Freezing episodes are a common symptom in advanced stages, indicating a more severe progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and D focus on common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease but do not specifically address the aspect of disease progression related to freezing episodes.
2. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
- A. Right hand
- B. Right forearm
- C. Left hand
- D. Right subclavian
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
3. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
4. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?
- A. Stands from sitting on the floor by using hands to walk up legs
- B. Exhibits muscular atrophy of upper and lower extremities
- C. Is unable to stand because of contractures of both hips
- D. Walks with an unsteady gait and slaps feet on the floor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.
5. A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the current treatment plan with the client
- B. Inform the healthcare provider about the client’s behaviors
- C. Determine if the client has PRN medication for anxiety
- D. Explore the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Exploring the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.
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