ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. In orienting new staff nurses to a pediatric intensive care unit, what is an important consideration in providing information to parents of a critically ill child?
- A. Making sure they receive complete information during each encounter
- B. Assessing parents' preferences regarding the amount of information
- C. Allowing parents to observe key aspects of their child's care
- D. Providing patient education brochures explaining ICU protocols
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing parents' preferences about the amount of information is crucial because it allows for individualized care that respects their needs and emotional capacity during a stressful time. Choice A is not ideal as overwhelming parents with complete information during each encounter may not align with their preferences. Choice C, while valuable, may not always be feasible or appropriate due to privacy concerns or medical procedures. Choice D, providing brochures, may not address the specific needs or preferences of each set of parents, making it less effective than assessing individual preferences.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Check for an allergy to eggs
- C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
- D. Monitor for hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.
3. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Polyuria
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?
- A. Increased urinary output
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
- D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.
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