HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, what should the LPN/LVN remember about confusion in the elderly?
- A. It is not a normal part of aging.
- B. It often follows relocation to new surroundings.
- C. It is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease.
- D. It cannot be prevented or cured by adequate sleep alone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client with dementia, it is crucial to understand that confusion often arises after relocating to new surroundings. This change can disrupt familiar routines and trigger increased disorientation and confusion. Choice A is correct because confusion in the elderly is not a normal part of aging. Choice C is incorrect because confusion in dementia is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease, not just irreversible brain pathology. Choice D is incorrect because while adequate sleep is important for overall health, it alone cannot prevent or cure confusion associated with dementia.
2. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?
- A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
- B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
- C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
- D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.
3. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
- B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
- C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
- D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?
- A. A client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
- B. A client who has heart failure
- C. A client who is receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
- D. A client who has abdominal ascites
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.
5. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Saturated abdominal dressing
- C. Pain level of 8/10
- D. Temperature of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.
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