Nursing Elites

1. When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Advise the client that suctioning will be used to obtain another specimen
• B. Re-instruct the client in coughing techniques to obtain another specimen
• C. Provide the client a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth
• D. Label the container and place the container in a biohazard transport bag

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.

2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks
• B. Resume a low-fat diet
• C. Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours
• D. Expect significant pain for the first week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours.' Prompt removal of bandages after 24 hours promotes proper wound healing and reduces the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding driving for 2 weeks may not be universally necessary post-cholecystectomy. Choice B is incorrect because while a low-fat diet is recommended after surgery, it is not directly related to incision care. Choice D is incorrect because while pain is common post-surgery, stating 'significant pain for the first week' may not apply to all patients, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.

3. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
• B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
• C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
• D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.

4. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to administer medication to a child. What should the nurse do to ensure the correct dosage?

• A. Check the child's weight
• B. Verify the medication order with a pharmacist
• C. Consult the child's parents
• D. Double-check the dosage calculations with another nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering medication to children, it is crucial to ensure the correct dosage to prevent dosing errors. Double-checking the dosage calculations with another nurse can help verify the accuracy of the prescribed dose, reducing the risk of medication errors. While checking the child's weight (Choice A) is important for dosage calculation, it alone may not ensure the correctness of the dosage. Verifying the medication order with a pharmacist (Choice B) is essential, but it may not directly address the accuracy of dosage calculations. Consulting the child's parents (Choice C) is not a standard practice for verifying medication dosages and should not be solely relied upon for ensuring the correct dosage.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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