Nursing Elites

1. How many molecules of NADPH and ATP are required to reduce 6 molecules of CO2 to glucose via photosynthesis?

• A. 6 NADPH and 9 ATP
• B. 12 NADPH and 18 ATP
• C. 18 NADPH and 24 ATP
• D. 24 NADPH and 36 ATP

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During photosynthesis, 12 molecules of NADPH and 18 molecules of ATP are required to reduce 6 molecules of CO2 to glucose. NADPH and ATP are essential energy carriers in the process of photosynthesis. Choice A is incorrect because it underestimates the required molecules of both NADPH and ATP. Choices C and D overestimate the number of molecules needed, making them incorrect answers.

2. In the reaction 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2, what is the limiting reactant when 3 moles of sodium react with 2 moles of water?

• A. Na
• B. H2O
• C. NaOH
• D. H2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The balanced chemical equation indicates that 2 moles of sodium react with 2 moles of water to yield 2 moles of sodium hydroxide and 1 mole of hydrogen gas. When 3 moles of sodium react with only 2 moles of water, sodium becomes the limiting reactant as it is present in excess compared to the available water molecules. This situation arises because not all sodium atoms can fully react with the limited amount of water, resulting in sodium being the limiting reactant in this specific case. Choice B (H2O), choice C (NaOH), and choice D (H2) are incorrect as they are not the limiting reactant in the given reaction scenario.

3. What is the structure that connects the ovary to the uterus in the female reproductive system?

• A. Urethra
• B. Fallopian tube
• C. Vagina
• D. Cervix

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The fallopian tubes are the structures that connect the ovaries to the uterus in the female reproductive system. These tubes serve as a pathway for the egg to travel from the ovary to the uterus, where fertilization typically occurs. Options (A) Urethra, (C) Vagina, and (D) Cervix are not the structures responsible for connecting the ovary to the uterus, making them incorrect choices for this question.

4. During a healthy heartbeat, the P wave on an ECG represents

• A. The repolarization of the ventricles.
• B. The electrical conduction through the AV node.
• C. The contraction phase of the ventricles (systole).
• D. The depolarization of the atria.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The P wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of the atria. This electrical activity initiates the contraction of the atria, allowing blood to be pumped into the ventricles. The P wave is the first positive deflection seen on the ECG and signifies the beginning of atrial depolarization, which is a critical step in the cardiac cycle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Option A (The repolarization of the ventricles) is represented by the T wave on the ECG. Option B (The electrical conduction through the AV node) is not represented by the P wave but rather by the PR interval on the ECG. Option C (The contraction phase of the ventricles (systole)) is more related to the QRS complex on the ECG, which represents ventricular depolarization and contraction.

5. What type of immunity does a vaccine provide? Choose only ONE best answer.

• A. Naturally acquired passive immunity
• B. Artificially acquired passive immunity
• C. Naturally acquired active immunity
• D. Artificially acquired active immunity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Artificially acquired active immunity. Vaccines work by stimulating the immune system to produce an active response, leading to the development of immunity against specific pathogens. Choice A, naturally acquired passive immunity, is incorrect as it refers to the temporary immunity passed from mother to child, not through vaccines. Choice B, artificially acquired passive immunity, is also incorrect because passive immunity involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies, not the stimulation of the immune system by vaccines. Choice C, naturally acquired active immunity, is incorrect since it is acquired through natural exposure to pathogens, not through vaccines.

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