by the second postoperative day a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief based on this evaluation which of the following actions should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.

2. The client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication where a blood clot travels to the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention. While pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT, shortness of breath suggests a more critical situation that necessitates urgent intervention.

3. The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the LPN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the LPN should continue asking the mother questions about the child. The mother's behavior of looking at the floor may be a cultural practice, such as avoiding direct eye contact, which should be respected. By maintaining the conversation with the mother, the nurse acknowledges and respects her communication style, fostering trust and open dialogue. Option A is not the best choice as it may disregard the cultural context and the importance of the mother's input. Option C is unnecessary as the LPN can effectively handle the situation. Option D could be perceived as insensitive and may disrupt the rapport between the nurse and the mother.

4. A nurse in a long-term care facility is admitting a client who is incontinent and smells strongly of urine. His partner, who has been caring for him at home, is embarrassed and apologizes for the smell. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: "I understand that this is challenging; let’s work together to ensure comfort." This response acknowledges the difficulty the partner is facing, shows empathy, and offers to collaborate in providing care. Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly address the partner's feelings of embarrassment or offer support. Choice B, while true, does not address the partner's emotional state and may come across as directive rather than supportive. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses solely on the smell without addressing the partner's emotions or offering assistance in managing the situation with empathy.

5. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

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