by the second postoperative day a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief based on this evaluation which of the following actions should the
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HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing a care plan for a patient who is immobile. Which psychosocial aspect will the professional assess for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Loss of hope is a significant psychosocial aspect that healthcare professionals should assess for in patients who are immobile. Immobility can lead to feelings of hopelessness and depression, impacting the patient's mental well-being. Assessing for loss of hope allows healthcare professionals to provide appropriate support and interventions to address the patient's emotional needs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they primarily relate to physical changes (bone mass, strength, weight) rather than the psychosocial aspect of hope.

3. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

4. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

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