HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?
- A. Reassess the client to determine the reasons for inadequate pain relief.
- B. Wait to see whether the pain lessens during the next 24 hours.
- C. Change the plan of care to provide different pain relief interventions.
- D. Teach the client about the plan of care for managing pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.
3. During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?
- A. Apathy
- B. Euphoria
- C. Detachment
- D. Emotionalism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the stages of dying, when a client reaches the point of acceptance, the expected response is 'Detachment.' This is characterized by the individual withdrawing emotionally and psychologically from their surroundings as they come to terms with their impending death. Apathy (Choice A) refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern, which is not typically associated with the acceptance stage. Euphoria (Choice B) is an intense feeling of happiness or excitement, which is less likely during the acceptance stage of dying. Emotionalism (Choice D) involves exaggerated or uncontrollable emotional reactions, which are not commonly seen during the acceptance phase.
4. While observing a student nurse administering a narcotic analgesic IM injection without aspirating, what should the nurse do?
- A. Ask the student, 'What did you forget to do?'
- B. Stop and explain why aspiration is needed.
- C. Quietly state, 'You forgot to aspirate.'
- D. Walk up and whisper in the student's ear, 'Stop. Aspirate. Then inject.'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When the nurse observes a student nurse making a mistake during a procedure, such as not aspirating before administering a medication, the nurse should provide immediate, discreet feedback to correct the error. Walking up and whispering in the student's ear to stop, aspirate, and then inject is appropriate as it corrects the mistake while maintaining the student's dignity and confidence. Option A is not as effective as it indirectly addresses the issue. Option B is not the best approach as the student needs immediate correction. Option C is not ideal as loudly stating the mistake may embarrass the student and is not necessary for a discreet correction.
5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
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