HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?
- A. Reassess the client to determine the reasons for inadequate pain relief.
- B. Wait to see whether the pain lessens during the next 24 hours.
- C. Change the plan of care to provide different pain relief interventions.
- D. Teach the client about the plan of care for managing pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.
2. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Heart rate
- C. Abdominal tenderness
- D. Overdue menses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.
3. The patient is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which of the following laboratory values would be most important to monitor?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood glucose level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial when a patient is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, a condition of low white blood cell count, which significantly increases the risk of infections. Monitoring white blood cell count helps healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent severe infections. Hemoglobin level, while important in assessing oxygen-carrying capacity, is not the priority in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?
- A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
- B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
- C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
- D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.
5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Vastus lateralis muscle
- C. Abdomen
- D. Inner forearm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The inner forearm is the most appropriate site for administering a tuberculin skin test. This test requires an intradermal injection, which is administered just below the surface of the skin. The inner forearm provides a flat, easily accessible surface for this type of injection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the tuberculin skin test should not be administered into a muscle (deltoid muscle or vastus lateralis muscle) or into the abdomen. The test requires precise placement within the dermal layer of the skin on the inner forearm to accurately assess for a reaction.
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