Nursing Elites

1. At a nursing staff meeting, there is a discussion of perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. As a follow-up, what should the nurse manager do initially?

• A. Allow the staff to change assignments
• B. Clarify reasons for current assignments
• C. Help staff see the complexity of issues
• D. Facilitate creative thinking on staffing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating creative thinking on staffing is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse manager in addressing perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. By encouraging creative thinking, the manager promotes innovative solutions and fosters a sense of ownership and collaboration among staff members. Choices A, B, and C are not the best initial steps in this situation. Allowing staff to change assignments may not address the underlying issues, clarifying reasons for current assignments may not resolve perceived inequities, and helping staff see the complexity of issues may not lead to actionable solutions.

2. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?

• A. Compulsive behavior
• B. Sense of impending doom
• C. Fear of flying
• D. Predictable episodes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

4. What components should a nurse include when conducting a community health assessment?

• A. Personal health history of community members
• B. Number of hospitals in the community
• C. Demographic data, health status indicators, and community resources
• D. Results of laboratory tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a community health assessment, it is essential to gather demographic data (such as age, gender, ethnicity), health status indicators (like prevalence of diseases, mortality rates), and information on community resources (such as healthcare facilities, social services). These components help in understanding the health needs of the community and planning appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are not typically part of a community health assessment as they focus on individual health data or specific medical information rather than the broader population health perspective required for community assessments.

5. To prevent keratitis in an unconscious client, where should the nurse apply moisturizing ointment?

• A. Finger and toenail quicks
• B. Eyes
• C. Perianal area
• D. External ear canals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eyes. Applying moisturizing ointment to the eyes helps prevent keratitis, a condition that can occur due to inadequate blinking in unconscious clients, leading to corneal dryness and potential damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as moisturizing ointment should not be applied to finger and toenail quicks, perianal area, or external ear canals to prevent keratitis.

Similar Questions