Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

3. The nurse is caring for an elderly female client who tells the nurse, 'When I sneeze, I wet my pants.' After discussing the client's complaint with the charge nurse, the nurse plans to reinforce teaching about the importance of Kegel exercises. What muscles are involved in these exercises?

• A. Pectoral muscles
• B. Buttock muscles
• C. Abdominal muscles
• D. Pelvic floor muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Kegel exercises involve the pelvic floor muscles. These muscles help strengthen the muscles controlling urination, potentially reducing symptoms of urinary incontinence. Pectoral muscles (Choice A), responsible for movement of the shoulders and arms, are not involved in Kegel exercises. Buttock muscles (Choice B) are primarily responsible for hip movement and stability, not related to Kegel exercises. Abdominal muscles (Choice C) support the core and trunk but are not the focus of Kegel exercises.

4. The nurse is assisting with the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. Although the client has been able to easily answer questions, when asked about sexual activity, she looks away. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Omit the section of the assessment form
• B. Ask her if she would like an interpreter to help her understand the question
• C. Reword the question to make it more culturally sensitive
• D. Observe the client's response when asked a different question

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing the client's response to another question is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse can assess whether the client's discomfort is due to cultural sensitivity or a misunderstanding. This approach allows the nurse to proceed with sensitivity and respect, ensuring effective communication. Option A is incorrect because omitting the section of the assessment form may result in missing crucial information relevant to the client's condition. Option B jumps to assumptions about a language barrier without confirming it first. Option C focuses on rewording the question without addressing the underlying issue causing the client's discomfort, which may not necessarily be due to a lack of understanding.

5. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?

• A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
• B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
• C. Painful moaning and crying
• D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.

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