Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. A 6-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering a bronchodilator
• B. Administering an antihistamine
• C. Administering a corticosteroid
• D. Administering oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention for a child experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Bronchodilators help to dilate the airways, making breathing easier and relieving acute symptoms of asthma. Antihistamines are not the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbations; they are more commonly used for allergic reactions. Corticosteroids are beneficial in reducing inflammation in asthma but are usually administered after bronchodilators to provide long-term control. Oxygen therapy may be necessary in severe cases of asthma exacerbation, but bronchodilators take precedence in improving airway patency and respiratory distress.

3. A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering IV immunoglobulin
• B. Monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms
• C. Encouraging fluid intake
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 3-year-old child with Kawasaki disease is monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms. Kawasaki disease can lead to the development of coronary artery aneurysms, which are one of the most serious complications of the disease. Early detection and monitoring of coronary artery changes are essential for prompt intervention and prevention of adverse outcomes. Administering IV immunoglobulin is an important treatment for Kawasaki disease, but monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms takes precedence as it directly impacts the child's long-term prognosis. Encouraging fluid intake and providing nutritional support are important aspects of care but are not the priority when compared to monitoring for potential life-threatening complications.

4. A nurse on the pediatric unit is observing the developmental skills of several 2-year-old children in the playroom. Which child should the nurse continue to evaluate?

• A. Cannot stand on one foot
• B. Builds a tower of 7 blocks
• C. Uses echolalia when speaking
• D. Colors outside the lines of a picture

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because using echolalia (repeating words or phrases) is not typical for a 2-year-old and may indicate the need for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within the expected developmental skills for a 2-year-old. While a 2-year-old may not be able to stand on one foot for an extended period, it is not a concerning developmental milestone at this age. Building a tower of 7 blocks and coloring outside the lines of a picture are both age-appropriate activities that demonstrate fine motor skills and creativity, respectively. However, echolalia at this age could be a sign of an underlying communication or developmental issue that warrants further assessment and monitoring.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the professional identify as the cause of the polycythemia?

• A. Low tissue oxygen needs
• B. Tissue oxygen needs
• C. Diminished iron level
• D. Hypertrophic cardiac muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs as the body's response to chronic hypoxia by increasing RBC production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, the heart's structure causes reduced oxygen levels in the blood. This chronic hypoxia stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, leading to an elevated RBC count. Choice A is incorrect as low blood pressure is not directly related to polycythemia in this context. Choice C, diminished iron level, is not the cause of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is not the primary cause of the elevated RBC count in this case.

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