Nursing Elites

1. During the initial assessment of an older male client with obesity and diabetes who develops intermittent claudication, which additional information obtained by the nurse is most significant?

• A. Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.
• B. Exercises regularly.
• C. Has a high-fat diet.
• D. Consumes alcohol daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral arterial disease, a condition that can lead to intermittent claudication. The nicotine and other chemicals in cigarettes can damage blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow and increased risk of developing circulation problems. Choices B, C, and D are less significant in the context of intermittent claudication. Regular exercise, a high-fat diet, and daily alcohol consumption may have health implications, but they are not as directly linked to the development of intermittent claudication in the presence of obesity, diabetes, and smoking.

2. What are the clinical manifestations of otitis media?

• A. Earache, wheezing, vomiting
• B. Coughing, rhinorrhea, headache
• C. Fever, irritability, pulling on ear
• D. Wheezing, cough, drainage in ear canal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever, irritability, pulling on the ear. Clinical manifestations of otitis media commonly include fever, irritability, and children may show signs of pulling or rubbing their ears. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes wheezing and vomiting, which are not typical symptoms of otitis media. Choice B includes coughing, rhinorrhea, and headache, which are more commonly associated with upper respiratory infections rather than otitis media. Choice D includes wheezing, cough, and drainage in the ear canal, which are not typical clinical manifestations of otitis media.

3. An adult client who received partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit.

• A. Normal Saline
• B. Lactated Ringer’s
• C. 5% Dextrose in water
• D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In burn patients, Lactated Ringer's solution is preferred over other options as it helps in restoring fluid and electrolyte balance effectively. Lactated Ringer's contains electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium) that closely mimic the body's natural composition, making it a suitable choice for fluid resuscitation in burn injuries. Normal Saline (Choice A) lacks electrolytes like potassium and calcium, which are essential in burn management. 5% Dextrose in water (Choice C) is a hypotonic solution and is not the ideal choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Choice D) is a hypotonic solution mainly used for conditions requiring free water replacement rather than volume expansion needed in burn injuries.

4. Following surgical repair of the bladder, a female client is being discharged from the hospital to home with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. Avoid coiling the tubing and keep it free of kinks.
• B. Cleanse the perineal area with soap and water twice daily.
• C. Keep the drainage bag lower than the level of the bladder.
• D. Drink 1,000 ml of fluids daily to irrigate the catheter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter post-bladder surgery is to keep the drainage bag positioned lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of infection. Choice A, avoiding coiling the tubing and keeping it free of kinks, is important to maintain proper flow but not as critical as ensuring the drainage bag is lower than the bladder. Choice B, cleansing the perineal area, is essential for overall hygiene but not directly related to catheter care instructions. Choice D, drinking fluids to irrigate the catheter, is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and should be guided by healthcare providers based on specific needs.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Apples
• C. Carrots
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

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