Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client’s admitting diagnosis?

• A. Jugular vein distention.
• B. Crackles in the lung bases.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Bounding peripheral pulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.

2. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
• C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

3. An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
• B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
• C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
• D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.

4. A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?

• A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
• B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
• C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
• D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.

5. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Information for the parents including home care
• B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
• C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
• D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.

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